c. Identical twins are more similar on the trait than fraternal twins.
Explanation:
Twins are siblings from same pregnancy.Identical twins are monozygotic i.e they develop from the same zygote.Fraternal twins are dizygotic i.e. they develop from two different zygote formed by fusion of of two different eggs with two different sperms.Thus,identical twins genetically identical to each other but fraternal twins are not.So if identical twins are more similar in a given trait than fraternal twins then it can be concluded that the trait is dependent on Genetic factor.ANSWER 4 QUICK QUESTIONS!!
What accomplishment are you most proud of? ...
Which of your friends are you proudest of? ...
What's the most beautiful place you've ever been? ...
Do you feel like a leader or a follower? ...
Answer:
Quick?
Explanation:
My garden.
My best friend.
the mountains.
Follower.
Answer:
I am proud of washing the dishes
My friend I'm most proudest of is James, because he washed the dishes
The most beautiful place I've been to is the sink.
I feel like a leader because I wash the dishes
Explanation:
Which of the following statements are true: Acetylcholine stimulates the motor end plate. Slow fibers are absent from hand muscles. All of the listed statements are true. Motor units have a set tension strength per contraction. When DHPR proteins undergo a conformational change, Ca ions are released. Ca ions enter the sarcoplasmic reticulum via active transport.
Explanation:
Skeletal muscle tissue structures skeletal muscles, which join to bones or skin and control headway and any development that can be deliberately controlled. Since it very well may be constrained by thought, skeletal muscle is additionally called willful muscle. Skeletal muscle likewise has numerous cores present in a solitary cell. Smooth muscle has no striations, isn't under deliberate control, has just a single core for each phone, is decreased at the two finishes, and is called automatic muscle. Cardiovascular muscle tissue is just found in the heart, and cardiovascular compressions siphon blood all through the body and keep up circulatory strain. It has one core for every cell, is spread, and is recognized by the nearness of intercalated plates.Hence, the right answer is option a "All of the listed statements are true"
A team of scientists and dentists collaborates to develop a toothpaste that can instantly whiten teeth. A meeting is held so that the team members are acquainted with each other. The members formally introduce themselves and collectively establish group norms. This group is in the _____ stage of team development.
Answer:
forming
Explanation:
Team development is a process wherein different individuals come together and learn to work efficiently to carry out a specific task.
There are certain stages that a team goes through during the development phase and these are:
1. Forming
2. Storming
3. Norming
4. Performing
5. Adjourning
The stage of team development where the different members get to know each other and orient themselves concerning each other's space is known as forming. This is a stage where they get acquainted with each other and explore and learn the ideas fo different team members.
Since in the given situation the scientists and dentists are holding a team meeting to get acquainted with each other and formally introducing themselves, the team is currently in the development stage of forming.
Which type of epithelium lines the inferior portions of the pharynx?
Answer:
The type of epithelium that lines the inferior portions of the pharynx is stratified squamous epithelium.
Explanation:
The pharynx is a structure made up of muscles and mucous membranes -like many internal organs- that is part of the respiratory system and is an intermediate step in the digestive tract.
This structure has two portions:
Upper or nasopharynx Lower, or oropharynx, in contact with the airways.Some even propose that the borderline surface between the pharynx and larynx can be called the laryngopharynx, due to its tissue structure.
The lower portion of the pharynx is covered by a squamous stratified epithelium, the inner layers of which rest on a basal lamina. The more superficial layers provide protection to the interior of the pharynx against friction, in addition to remaining lubricated by mucous secretion at that level.
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Brian wants to buy a mare which he can breed to help develop a horse-breeding operation. Larson offers to sell Brian a horse which he believes is healthy, and should make a good broodmare when a little older. After two years, the horse has not yet foaled. The veterinarian tells Brian that the horse is incapable of breeding. If Brian sues to rescind the contract with Larson, it is:
Explanation:
Brian was not aware of that fact that the horse is incapable of breeding at the point he buys it, but Larson assures Brian the horse is healthy. In this light, if Brian sues to cancel the contract with Larson, the court will allow it based on a mistake of fact. This way the court will reduce any civil liability or criminal culpability because Larson might not know that the horse cannot breed, although he is certain that the horse is healthyHence, the right answer is "Likely that a court will allow the rescission based on a mistake of fact"1. The carrier proteins through which sugar enters pancreatic beta cells have______.A. A Lower Km.B. A Higher Km.C. The Same Km.2. Than the carriers through which sugar enters muscle cells . In order for muscle cells to increase sugar import_______.A. Blood sugar levels must be high.B. Insulin must be present.C. Glycogen must be present.D. Glucagon must be present.3. Oh, and glucokinase has a______when compared to hexokinase.A. High Km.B. Low Km. 4. ________are responsible for the release of transferrin from the transferrin receptor and iron form transferrin. A. Proton Pumps.B. Iron Reductases.C. Ferriportins.D. Iron Oxidases.5. ________Convert the iron to the active form in which it may be exported.A. Proton Pumps.B. Iron Reductases.C. Ferriportins.D. Iron Oxidases. 6. This happens in the_______.A. Lysosome.B. Cytoplasm.C. Intermembrane Space.D. Interstitial Fluid.
The carrier proteins through which sugar enters pancreatic beta cells have "Higher Km" (a high Km indicates low affinity for the substrate) than the carriers through which sugar enters muscle cells at fasting blood sugar levels.
In order for muscle cells to increase sugar import Insulin "must be present". Oh, and glucokinase has a High Km (a lower affinity for glucose ) when compared to hexokinase.
"Proton pumps" are responsible for the release of transferrin from the transferrin receptor and iron form transferrin (Proton pumps are transporters that move hydrogen ions from regions with low concentration to regions with higher concentration)
"Iron Reductases" convert the iron to the active form in which it may be exported (ferric iron is converted to ferrous iron by ferric reductase). This happens in the "Lysosome" (lysosome is an organelle that contains hydrolytic enzymes)
What are the disadvantages of a flatworms digestive system having
The provided question is incomplete, however the complete question is as follows:
What are the disadvantages of a flatworm's digestive system having only one opening?
Answer:
The correct answer is - cannot consume food continuously .
Explanation:
The main disadvantage of digestive system in the flatworm are one way of opening which is a characteristic feature of many Platyhelminthes phylum organism. This type of digestive system where food enters and exits with the same and only opening available.
In flatworms, once the organism take the food it has to wait for the food to be digested and excreted out by the same opening it use to eat and leave the same opening.
Thus, the correct answer is - cannot consume food continuously.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
What are the disadvantages of a flatworm's digestive system having only one opening?
Answer:
The digestive system of the flatworms has been modified depending on their host parasite interaction. They have simple digestive system with the single opening.
This digestive system might have some disadvantages as the food consumption is not continuous due to the single opening. The ingestion and excretion as same opening and this increases the timing of the digestion and excretion process. The energy is expanded more in this type of the digestive system.
A microbial ecologist wants to study a bacterium that is adapted to growth in lake water containing very low nutrient concentrations. Assuming that a suitable growth medium is available for this organism, which type of culture would be best to use for growing this organism in the lab?
A) this organism cannot be grown in the lab.
B) a batch culture using a low-nutrient medium
C) on Petri plates containing a low-nutrient medium
D) a chemostat using a low-nutrient medium
Answer: D) a chemostat using a low-nutrient medium
Explanation:
A chemostat is a bioreactor in which a constant chemical environment is maintained. In the bioreactor the fresh medium is added, whereas the culture liquid, left out nutrients, microorganisms and metabolic end products are removed from the medium at the same rate to keep the volume of the culture constant.
The volume and concentration of the nutrient medium can be maintained in the chemostat bioreactor.
According to the given situation, the bacteria can be cultured in low-nutrient growth medium that is the lake water to observe its adaptation under the low-nutrient concentration.
Adult male humans generally have deeper voices than do adult female humans, which is the direct result of higher levels of testosterone causing growth of the larynx. If the fossil records of apes and humans alike show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in adult females and increasing larynx size in adult males, then _________.a. sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these speciesb. intrasexual selection seems to have occurredc. stabilizing selection was occurring in these species concerning larynx sized. selection was acting more directly upon genotype than upon phenotype
Answer:
a. sexual dimorphism was developing over time in these species
Explanation:
Sexual dimorphism is an evolutionary change that occurs over time in species, which could be as a result of sexual selection which makes both sex of a species develop a systematic difference in form, which can manifest in terms of body size, color, secondary sex characteristics, and size of some structures such as larynx size which accounts for deeper voices in males in relation to levels of testosterone. This is later passed across from generation to generation over time.
The process of straightening an unsaturated fatty acid to create a more solid fat that resists rancidity is called
Answer:
The correct answer is hydrogenation
Explanation:
The process of straightening an unsaturated fatty to produce more saturated and more solid fat is called hydrogenation. In the process of hydrogenation, the hydrogen is added to the liquid unsaturated fats to convert them into solid fat.
Hydrogenation helps in increasing the shelf life of the oil by resisting rancidity. Most of the trans fat in our diet is made from the process of hydrogenation. Fully hydrogenated oil contains a very small amount of trans fat and is better than trans fat which is partially hydrogenated.
Answer:
Hydrogenation.
Explanation:
Two main types of fatty acid are unsaturated fatty acid and saturated fatty acid. The saturated fatty acid has single bond in their structure whereas unsaturated fatty acid has double or triple bond.
The hydrogenation may be defined as the addition of hydrogen molecules to the unsaturated fatty acids that makes them saturated. This process in the presence of palladium that acts as catalyst for the reaction. The increases in saturation level decreases the rancidity as well.
Thus, the answer is hydrogenation.
When the diet lacks fiber and the volume of residues in the colon is small, the colon narrows and its contractions become more powerful, increasing the pressure on its walls. That promotes formation of __________.
Explanation:
Diverticula are little, protruding pockets that can shape in the covering of your stomach related framework. They are discovered regularly in the lower some portion of the internal organ (colon). Diverticula are normal, particularly after age 40, and only from time to time cause issues. Once in a while, notwithstanding, at least one of the pockets become aggravated or contaminated. That condition is known as diverticulitis Diverticulitis can cause serious fever, nausea, abdominal pain. Mellow diverticulitis can be treated with rest, changes in your eating routine and anti-infection agents.Lack of dietary fiber can lead to the formation of diverticula, known as diverticulosis, and inflammation of these pouches is known as diverticulitis. Dietary fibers are crucial for maintaining colon health and reducing the risk of colon cancer by providing bulk and stimulating peristalsis.
Explanation:When the diet lacks fiber and there's decreased volume of residues in the colon, this can cause the formation of diverticula, a condition known as diverticulosis. When these diverticula become inflamed, the condition is known as diverticulitis, similar to how an inflamed appendix is called appendicitis.
The colon responds to a diet lacking in fiber by narrowing and increasing the pressure within its walls. This is a result of the colon contracting more powerfully to move the smaller volume of fecal matter, which can contribute to the development of diverticulosis and potentially lead to diverticulitis if inflammation occurs.
Regular intake of both soluble fiber, like inulin, and insoluble fiber, which includes nondigestible carbohydrates that do not dissolve in water, is important for colon health. These types of dietary fiber help maintain regularity, soften stools, and enhance the strength of colonic contractions, thereby reducing the risk of conditions like diverticulosis. Moreover, fiber intake is inversely associated with the risk of colon cancer.
A patient was exposed to a nerve gas during a chemical warfare attack. The nerve gas inhibited the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. What will happen to the amount of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft
Explanation:
When ACh is consistently released from the synaptic vesicles into the synaptic split, an expansion in transmitter fixation follows. The serine hydrolase AChE causes a fast hydrolysis of ACh with an exceptionally high response rate prompting the breakdown of ACh and its disposal from the synaptic separatedThis response drastically diminishes the grouping of ACh inside the synaptic split. In this manner, ACh focus rots because of hydrolysis, dissemination and connection to AChR in an exponential fashionThe human stress system evolved to deal with events such as getting chased by a lion. Which modern stress activates the stress system in the same way as getting chased by a lion?
Final answer:
Modern stressors like public speaking or deadlines trigger the fight or flight response similar to ancestral threats like being chased by a lion. This chronic activation of the stress system can lead to serious health issues.
Explanation:
The modern stress that activates the stress system in the same way as getting chased by a lion would be psychological threats, such as public speaking or facing a looming deadline. These modern stressors activate the fight or flight response, which the human nervous system has evolved over millions of years to handle immediate physical threats. The autonomic nervous system triggers a series of hormonal and physiological adjustments when faced with such stress. Unfortunately, modern stressors tend to be prolonged and can lead to chronic activation of this system, which can have serious health consequences, including cardiovascular disease, diabetes, anxiety disorders, depression, and impaired judgment.
While testing for biological macromolecules in an unknown, you find that it reacts strongly with iodine and the solution immediately turns a very dark black. The macromolecule at hand must be:_________.
The macromolecule must be starch.
Explanation:
Starch is a polymer of Glucose joined by glycosydic bond.
Starch is the main energy storage substance in green plants.
Starches react with iodine and give a bluish black or black color and thus iodine test is considered as a confirmatory test for starches.
In this experiment ,the solution turns very dark black on addition of iodine so we can be sure that the solution contained starch.
Q. A person’s blood glucose level fluctuates during the day, asrepresented in Figure 1. Two hormones, insulin and glucagon,are directly involved in regulating the blood glucose level tomaintain a healthy level. Insulin acts to lower the blood glucoselevel, and glucagon acts to increase the blood glucose level.Which of the following best predicts what will happen to theblood glucose level if the person has another meal at 5 pm?Immediately after the meal, the blood Immediately after the meal. the blood. glucose level will decrease because of the . glucose level will increase, and then insulinincrease in glucagon levels. will be secreted to counter the increase.Several hours after the meal, the blood The blood glucose level Will not change after. . the 5 pm. meal because the person hasglucose level wull Increase sharply because of. . . . already consumed two meals and the bloodan Increase In the amount of glucagon .secreted glucose level has been adjusted to a steady.' state level.
Answer:
If the person has another meal after 5 pm, the glucose level in the blood will increase, and the insulin level too.
Several hours after the meal, the glucose levels will decrease, and the glucagon levels will increase.
Explanation:
When a person ingests another meal after 5 p.m, the glucose levels in the blood will increase, as the body does not need all that glucose right now the insulin levels in the blood will increase to store glucose for later. The glucagon levels after a meal are very low because the aim is to store glucose not use it.
Several hours after the meal, the body needs the energy to keep operating so it will use the glucose that was stored, to do this, the levels of glucagon in blood have to increase and release the glucose, and the levels of insulin in blood have to decrease.
Following a meal, blood glucose levels rise which triggers the production of insulin. Insulin helps in glucose absorption and reduces the blood glucose level. Several hours post-meal, as glucose levels drop, glucagon gets released which assists in raising the blood glucose level by promoting glycogen breakdown and gluconeogenesis.
Explanation:When a person has a meal, the glucose level in the blood increases. This is due to the carbohydrates in the food being broken down into glucose. This rise in glucose triggers the pancreas to produce and release insulin. Insulin aids the cells in absorbing glucose and regulating the blood glucose level by reducing it. Moreover, insulin stimulates the liver and muscles to store excess glucose as glycogen.
Several hours after the meal, as the glucose is utilized, blood glucose levels start to drop. This decrease signals the pancreas to release glucagon. Glucagon stimulates the liver to break down the stored glycogen into glucose and release it back into the blood, thereby increasing the blood glucose level. Additionally, glucagon promotes the process of gluconeogenesis in the liver, where it synthesizes glucose from amino acids absorbed from the bloodstream. Both of these actions mediated by glucagon result in an increase in blood glucose levels to maintain it at a steady state.
In conclusion, immediately after a meal, the blood glucose level will increase and then insulin will be secreted to counter the increase. Then several hours after the meal, the blood glucose level will increase again due to an increase in the amount of glucagon secreted.
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The sensory receptors of the inner ear for equilibrium are
The inner ear structures responsible for equilibrium are the utricle, saccule, and three semicircular canals. They contain hair cells with stereocilia that sense head position and movement. Signals from these structures reach the brain stem and cerebellum via the vestibulocochlear nerve.
Explanation:The sensory receptors of the inner ear responsible for equilibrium, or balance, are primarily located within the vestibule of the inner ear. Specific structures involved are the utricle, saccule, and the three semicircular canals.
Each of these structures plays a distinctive role in maintaining equilibrium: the utricle and saccule help sense head position, while the semicircular canals sense head movement. They contain mechanoreceptors, specifically hair cells with stereocilia, that sense your body's position and motion and send this information to the brain.
The sensory signals generated in these structures are transmitted to the brain via the vestibulocochlear nerve, eventually reaching the brain stem and cerebellum, thereby allowing you to maintain balance and orientation.
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Otolith receptors in the inner ear help detect balance and head movements by transducing signals to the brain.
Otolith receptors are two inner ear vestibular receptors that transduce linear accelerations and head tilt into neural signals for detecting balance. These receptors, located in the utricle and saccule, play a crucial role in maintaining equilibrium. The neural signals from these receptors are transmitted to the brain for interpretation.
What activity does bipedalism in primates describe? Group of answer choices walking on two feet walking on four feet walking using two legs and a tail swinging from branch to branch
Bipedalism in primates is described as walking on two feet.
Explanation:
Bipedalism refers to the ability of walking on two feet. This is an evolutionary adaptation that has developed in many higher animals and has enabled them to reside and survive in diverse habitat. Though bipedalism is possible in all primates but it is generally not followed by them except in human beings.
Answer:
walking on two feet
Explanation:
took the quiz
When sperm and egg cells undergo meiosis, the number of chromosomes goes from ______ to _______. When an egg is fertilized by a sperm cell that number goes from ______ to ______. 2 to 2; 1 to 1 1 to 1; 2 to 2 1 to 2; 2 to 1 2 to 1; 1 to 2
Final answer:
The number of chromosomes in sperm and egg cells goes from diploid (46) to haploid (23) during meiosis. Upon fertilization, these haploid cells merge to form a diploid zygote with 46 chromosomes. The correct sequence is 2 to 1; 1 to 2.
Explanation:
When sperm and egg cells undergo meiosis, the number of chromosomes goes from diploid (2n) to haploid (n). Specifically, the number goes from 46 to 23 chromosomes in humans. When an egg is fertilized by a sperm cell, this number goes from haploid to diploid, or from n to 2n, effectively from 23 to 46 chromosomes. Therefore, the correct sequence of numbers from the options provided is 2 to 1; 1 to 2.
During this process, DNA is copied once, and then the cell divides twice, leading to gametes with half as much genetic information as the original cell. Upon fertilization, the gametes unite and the original number of chromosomes is restored in the zygote, which now contains the full complement of genetic information necessary for the development of a new organism.
Which one of the following statements is true of enzyme catalysts? A) Their catalytic activity is independent of pH. B) They are generally equally active on D and L isomers of a given substrate. C) They can increase the equilibrium constant for a given reaction by a thousand-fold or more. D) They can increase the reaction rate for a given reaction by a thousand-fold or more. E) To be effective, they must be present at the same concentration as their substrate
Answer:
D) They can increase the reaction rate for a given reaction by a thousand-fold or more.
Explanation:
Enzymes are like catalysts with the only difference that they are bio-molecules. Biochemical/chemical reactions are slow because of 'transition state barriers' which require a lot of energy to overcome so enzymes rather than overcoming transition state barrier provide an alternate pathway for biochemical reactions which require comparatively less energy. Thus presence of an enzyme leads to an increase in reaction rate because alternate pathway which requires less energy makes the rate of chemical reaction rapid by a thousand-fold or more.
The correct statement about enzyme catalysts is that they can increase the reaction rate for a given reaction by a thousand-fold or more. They do this by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction.
Explanation:The statement that is true of enzyme catalysts is D) They can increase the reaction rate for a given reaction by a thousand-fold or more. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in living organisms, and they can indeed increase the rate of a reaction drastically. This increased reaction rate is achieved by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction, thereby allowing it to proceed much faster than it would without the enzyme.
It is crucial to note that the other options provided are incorrect because the catalytic activity of enzymes is often dependent on pH (choice A is incorrect), enzymes show specificity towards the D or L form of an isomer (choice B is incorrect), they cannot change the equilibrium constant of a reaction but just speed up the rate at which equilibrium is achieved (choice C is incorrect), and they can typically function at much lower concentrations than their substrates (choice E is incorrect).
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What is not a role of activated complement?
what the activated complement does is protect the body by sending out WBS's wherever infections are located, this is it's only function.
The water-to-land transition occurred independently several times in the protostomes. What is not an example of an adaptation for terrestrial living that may have arisen by convergent evolution?
Answer: Decreased surface to volume ratios to increase the efficiency of the gas exchange in air
Explanation:
The protostomes are coelomate invertebrates in which the mouth is been formed firstly from an opening called the blastopore. They are arthropods, mollusks, and annelids.The important difference between protostomes and deuterostomes is between the point of the blastopore. In protostomes, the blastopore is been developed into the mouth, and the opposite cavity develops into the anus. While In deuterostomes (the group that includes echinoderms and vertebrates ), the blastopore in been developed into the anus.
During a party, Michael was talking to a friend about the symbolism involved in a recent movie. Michael attributed the explanation of the symbolism to a prominent movie critic, when actually he heard it from his roommate. This example illustrates which of the following phenomena?a. Source-monitoring error
b. Serial position effect
c. Cryptomnesia
d. Amnesia
Answer:
a. Source-monitoring error
Explanation:
Source-monitoring error is a phenomenon that refers to a type of memory error in which an individual’s recall of a memory or experience is disrupted leading to incorrect attribution of an experience to an incorrect source. Several factors have been identified to be the cause of this memory error. They include, brain injury, amnesia, depression, aging, high stress level, etc.
Answer:
A. Source-monitoring error.
Explanation:
Source monitoring errors occur when normal memory recall and perceptual processes are disrupted and a memory error occurs. Source monitoring itself is an unconscious mental test that humans perform in order to determine if a memory is "real" and accurate as opposed to being from an extraneous source like a dream or a movie. People use many sources to determine the source of a memory or idea. When a disruption in source monitoring occurs errors in recall can result as a source monitoring error. These occur when a specific recalled experience is falsely attributed to be the source of a particular memory.
In this instance now, Michael was talking to someone about symbolism in a recent movie. Instead of Michael to attributes the explanation to his roommate that told him, he attributed the explanation to a prominent movie critic.
All of the following would likely be the location for a biodiversity hotspot EXCEPT: Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. Answer choices tropical biome. mountain ecosystem. island ecosystem. tundra biome.
Explanation:
All of the given option can be the biodiversity hotspots EXCEPT:
Tundra biome.
Biodiversity is defined as the total number of species present within a biogeographic region.
A biodiversity hotspot is that geographic area where significant biodiversity exists.
A tropical biome, a mountain ecosystem and an island ecosystem can have a significant biodiversity depending on the climate and other environmental condition.
A tundra biome is totally covered with snow and have a very few areas of vegetation and could support only a few species So it cannot be a choice for Biodiversity hotspot.
What are expenditures for assets subsequent to acquisition?
The expenditures for assets subsequent to acquisition are purchase price, incidental expenses and installation charges.
What is expenditure?Expenditure is defined as the entire energy cost of maintaining steady bodily conditions plus the energy cost of physical activities.
It can also be defined as a measurement of the increased energy metabolism required to perform a function.
There are four basic component of expenditure
Resting metabolic rate The thermic effect of foodThe thermic effect of energyAdaptive or facultative or thermogenesisThus, the expenditures for assets subsequent to acquisition are purchase price, incidental expenses and installation charges.
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mutations can cause a change in a gene allele, which can be harmful. ocasionally mutations can be beneficial. some changes however are 'silent', i.e. they dont cause a change in the trait. explain how this is possible.
Answer: They replace the original amino acid with the same or a chemically similar amino acid
Explanation:
If for instance: glutamate is replaced by aspartate in a polypeptide chain, then the mutation is called 'silent' because both glutamate and aspartate are acidic amino acids, hence it does not result in a change of the amino acid sequence of the protein.
In a winter of an epidemic flu, 2000 babies were surveyed by a well-known pharmaceutical company to determine if the company's new medicine was effective after two days. Among 120 babies who had the flu and were given the medicine, 29 were cured within two days. Among 280 babies who had the flu but were not given the medicine, 56 were cured within two days. Is there any significant indication that supports the company's claim of the effectiveness of the medicine?
Final answer:
A preliminary comparison of cure rates indicates a slight advantage for the medicated group over the non-medicated group, but statistical analysis is required to determine significance. The medicine's goal is to manage symptoms, as complete prevention is not typically achievable with current antivirals like oseltamivir.
Explanation:
To assess the effectiveness of the pharmaceutical company's new flu medicine, we can compare the cure rates between the group that received the medicine and the group that did not. In the medicated group, 29 out of 120 babies were cured within two days, giving us a cure rate of approximately 24.2%. In contrast, the non-medicated group saw 56 out of 280 babies cured, which translates to a cure rate of around 20%.
While there is a numerical difference between the cure rates of the two groups, to determine if this difference is statistically significant, a hypothesis test such as Chi-square or Fisher's exact test would usually be conducted. These tests would provide a p-value that, when compared against a chosen significance level (commonly 0.05), would indicate whether the observed difference in cure rates could be due to chance or if it is statistically significant. However, without further statistical analysis, we cannot make a definitive conclusion on the effectiveness of the medicine.
It is also important to note that antivirals like oseltamivir and other medications prescribed for flu symptoms work to reduce symptom duration and inhibit the spread of virus but are not curative. They are part of the recommended treatment protocols for managing flu symptoms along with prophylactic antimicrobials and over-the-counter drugs to alleviate fever and headache.
In C3 plants the conservation of water promotes_______.a. photorespiration. b. a shift to C4.c. photosynthesis.d. the opening of stomata.e. the light reactions.
Answer:
A) photorespiration.
Explanation:
Photorespiration is the harmful metabolic process which takes place when the concentration of oxygen in the leaf increases compared to carbon dioxide.
The RUBISCO enzyme which usually binds the carbon dioxide now binds the oxygen and form the phosphoglycolate and 3 phosphoglycerate. The phosphoglycolate is lost through the Calvin cycle as Carbon dioxide molecule. This loss proves harmful to the plants.
The photorespiration occurs when the plant faces high temperature therefore n order to prevent water loss the stomata gets closed. This result in the binding of the oxygen to the RUBISCO and thus photorespiration begins.
Thus, Option-A is correct.
Although the mechanisms by which aerobic training leads to enhanced aerobic performance in adolescents are still unclear, it is likely that ________________ may play a role.
Answer:
increased maximal stroke volume
Explanation:
Stroke volume is the amount of blood put out by the left ventricle during a contraction. By doing the regular aerobic training one can increase its maximal stroke volume. More the stroke volume of a person less will be its heart rate because more amount of blood will be pumped by the heart in a single time.
This is the reason why athletes have a decreased heart rate than normal people. So till now the mechanism of enhanced aerobic performance lead by aerobic training is not clear but it can be said that increased maximal stroke volume may play a role.
If a bacterial cell culture contains 2 cells at time zero, 8 cells one hour later, 32 cells after 2 hours, and 128 cells after 4 hours, then which of the following describes the growth of this culture?
A) g = 0.5 h, v = 5 h^-1
B) g = 0.5 h, v = 2 h^-1
C) g = 2 h, v = 0.5 h^-1
D) g = 1 h, v = 1^-1
Answer:
B) g = 0.5 h, v = 2 h^-1
Explanation:
Generation time is the time taken for a bacterial cell to divide and produce an offspring. Bacterial cells divide exponentially.
The total number of cells is given as =2n x initial number
[n = number of generations]
So if the total is 8 cells:
8=2n x 2
2n=4
n=2
That means 2 generations have arose
Generation time is given as [tex]\frac{t}{n}[/tex]
where t=the time taken
if t=1hour and n=2
Generation time = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = 0.5hour
Generation time, g =0.5h, and the rate of generation (growth rate), v is 2 per hour
In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on pronghorn antelopes. In rangelands of the western United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another. If some of these fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only with other fleas that prefer cattle blood, then over time which of these should occur, if the host mammal can be considered as the fleas' habitat
OPTIONS:
1. reproductive isolation
2. sympatric speciation
3. habitat isolation
4. prezygotic barriers
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
First, let us consider the definition of the above listed terms in the question and see each come to play in the hypothetical situation.
Reproductive isolation occurs when two similar species become prevented from mating together as a result of environmental barriers. This can be seen in the flea population, as they become separated by ecological barrier, since some now live on pronghorn antelopes, while others live on cattle.
Sympatric speciation is a speciation that occurs when new species evolved from an ancestor that they share the same geographical region together, but dwell in overlapping different ecological area.For example, fleas that have preference for cattle blood evolved from pronghorn antelopes fleas, as their ancestor. The two species both dwell in overlapping ranges but still in the same rangeland.
Habitat isolation is a barrier that prevents two species from interbreeding as a result of differences in where they live. For example, fleas on cattle cannot interbreed with fleas on pronghorn antelopes.
Prezygotic barriers are reproductive mechanisms that prevent fertilization. Habitat isolation is an example of prezygotic reproductive mechanism that prevents fertilization to take place between fleas on cattle and fleas on pronghorn antelopes.