Answer:
High-protein
Explanation:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a disease in which there is obstruction of the lungs which makes it difficult for the person to breathe and there is an improper flow of the air in the respiratory tract. The disease management involves a proper diet which should have a high amount of proteins in it. A high protein diet is recommended for the patients as this leads to the strengthening of the muscles involved in the respiration and thus, avoids wasting and slows down the progressive worsening of the disease. Further, the high protein diet also helps to strengthen immunity and prevents infections of the respiratory tract. The proteins also provide more energy as sufferers of the disease also have difficulty performing activities such as walking, running, etc due to shortness of breath.If you wanted to test whether or not a particular pain reliever was effective in the general population, you would need to design an experiment with an experimental group and a control group. What should be the only difference between these two groups?
Answer:
The explanation of any natural phenomena requires the proper observation, experiment and research methodology. The experimental design should not violate the ethics and do not cause harm to the living organisms.
The testing of any drug requires the involvement of the experimental group and control group. The experimental group must given the tested drug to known its effect and compared with the control group that will get the placebo understand the psychological effect of the drug.
The experimental group is given the experimental treatment and the control group is given either a standard treatment or nothing.
Using the same subject as control and experimental group will depend on the study design. If it is a crossover study, then it may be fine as different groups would undergo different interventions or control at various time points.For example: The testing of any drug requires the involvement of the experimental group and control group. The experimental group must given the tested drug to known its effect and compared with the control group that will get the placebo understand the psychological effect of the drug.Learn more:
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answer the question correclty please 50 POINTSS
Answer:
The correct option is A) 0%- no chance.
Explanation:
As we can depict from the chromosomes that the child gets, the child will have the alleles Dd for hair colour. As the allele for dark colour is dominant, hence the child will most likely have dark hair.
The punnet square for the child can be drawn as follows:
d d
D Dd Dd
D Dd Dd
The results of the punnet square show that there will be no chance for the child to have red hair.
Answer:
The correct answer is A)
Explanation:
There is only dark and blonde so there is no way it can come out red.
How do the external structures of the respiratory system coordinate with the internal structures of the respiratory system in the process of respiration?
Answer:
The co-ordinate efficiently and effective...
Explanation:
Well...it is a type of antagonistic mechanism based of Dalton's Law for PArtial Pressures. We take in O2 and Exhale CO2 very effectively because the partial pressure of oxygen is higher outside and lower inside lungs and vice versa for CO2. when the Air with 21% O2 content enter the lungs, the Alveoli that are special sacs filled with air absorb some of it through their membranes and by a process called membrane diffusion of gases. The Air with 16% O2 content is exhaled out by the antagonistic action of lungs and Diaphram muscles combined.
According to the Clean Water Act, when is it legal to release pollution into a body of water?
A. when a permit has been issued
B. in an emergency situation
C. if it is organic
D. never
Answer:
A. when a permit has been issued.
Explanation:
The Clean Water Act refers to the primary federal act in the United States administering water pollution. The chief objective of this act is to preserve and rebuild the physical, chemical, and biological honor of the water of the nation.
According to the Clean Water Act, it is legal to release point source of pollution only in case of permission has been issued by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) which is introduced by Clean Water Act (CWA).
A 41-year-old woman has made the recent decision to start a family and iseager to undergo testing to mitigate the possibility of having a child with Down syndrome. Which of the following tests is most likely to provide the data the woman seeks?
A. Genetic testing of the woman
B. Genetic testing of the woman and the father
C. Prenatal blood tests
D. Ultrasonography
Answer: Prenatal blood tests
Explanation:
There is a more chance of occurrence of down syndrome in baby of the mother who are more than 35 years of age.
The prenatal blood tests of the child will led to the confirmation whether the child is suffering or not.
Before the prenatal blood tests there is no way for this confirmation. The tests of mother and father can only be used to find the chances of the baby suffering from down syndrome.
Describe a situation from the news or recent history where scientists were called upon to provide explanations of events and offer possible solutions to problems.
Answer:
Scientists obtain a great deal of the evidence they use by observing natural and experimentally generated objects and effects. Much of the standard philosophical literature on this subject comes from 20th century logical empiricists, their followers, and critics who embraced their issues and accepted some of their assumptions even as they objected to specific views. Their discussions of observational evidence tend to focus on epistemological questions about its role in theory testing. This entry follows their lead even though observational evidence also plays important and philosophically interesting roles in other areas including scientific discovery, the development of experimental tools and techniques, and the application of scientific theories to practical problems.
The issues that get the most attention in the standard philosophical literature on observation and theory have to do with the distinction between observables and unobservables, the form and content of observation reports, and the epistemic bearing of observational evidence on theories it is used to evaluate.
Explanation:
Answer:
climate change, as the year goes on the globe gets warmer and warmer and it's not slowing down. Thanks to scientists, they have done years of research to help to make the earth more eco friendly to stop the rise in climate change.
Annie was recently told that she produces physiologically low level of leptin. What does this mean in terms of her likelihood of becoming obese compared to someone who produces physiologically normal levels of leptin?
A) she has a greater likelihood of becoming obese
B) she has a much less likelihood of becoming obese
C) she has an equal likelihood of becoming obese
Answer:
A) she has a greater likelihood of becoming obese
Explanation:
The arcuate nucleus and the paraventricular nucleus are the two regions of the hypothalamus that regulate the food intake by a person. The neurons of these regions release neuropeptide Y and melanocortin. Leptin is secreted by adipocytes in the body. When more triglycerides are stored in the body, more leptin is secreted into the bloodstream.
Leptin reduces the total fat content of the body as it inhibits the pathway that makes the person eat food. Leptin stimulates the release of neurotransmitter melanocortin that inhibits food intake. Under the lower leptin concentration in the blood, the neurotransmitter neuropeptide Y stimulates food intake. Therefore, lower leptin production is more likely to make Annie obese.
On a full-moon day, the moon rises at the time of sunset. When is the moon expected to set? A) At the time of sunset next day B) At the time of midday next day C) At the time of sunrise next day D) At the time of midnight next day
Answer:
The correct option is C) At the time of sunrise next day
Explanation:
As the moon moves in its orbit, its side where it gets illuminated by the Sun also changes.
On a full moon day, the moon rises at the time of sunset and sets at the time of sunrise the next day.
On the night of a third quarter, the moon rises at midnight and sets during the noon period of the other day.
At first quarter, the moon rises at noon and gets set by the time of mid- night.
Assuming independent assortment, an individual of genotype SsYyAa would produce gametes of genotypes (in their correct proportions) _____. See Section 14.3 (Page 297) .
Answer:
1/8 SYA, 1/8 SYa, 1/8 SyA, 1/8 Sya, 1/8 sYA, 1/8 sYa, 1/8 syA, 1/8 sya
Explanation:
The given genotype is heterozygous for three genes. Considering that all the genes assort independent of each other, the given genotype will form a total of 2^3= 8 types of gametes in equal proportion. During gamete formation, two alleles of a gene (S and s, Y and y, A and a) would separate from each other randomly. This would form a total 8 different types of gametes with the following genotype:
1/8 SYA: 1/8 SYa: 1/8 SyA: 1/8 Sya: 1/8 sYA: 1/8 sYa: 1/8 syA: 1/8 sya
Question 6 You cross a true-breeding red-flowered snapdragon with a true-breeding white-flowered one. All of the FI are pink. What does this say about the alleles for the parental traits? (Concept 14.3) a. Pink is dominant, while red and white are recessive. b. Red is completely dominant. c. Both red and white are pleiotropic. d. Red and white are codominant. e. Red shows incomplete dominance over white.
Answer:
E (Red shows incomplete dominance over white)
Explanation:
This portrays a monohybrid cross involving a single gene coding for flower colour in snapdragon plants. According to the question, a purebreeding red flowered (homozygous) plant is crossed with a purebreeding white flowered (homozygous) plant to produce an all pink flowered offspring. This phenomenon is called INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE.
Mendel, in his experiments, discovered that an allele can mask the expression of another in a heterozygous state. He called the allele that masks DOMINANT allele while the allele that is masked RECESSIVE allele. However, exceptions like INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE, has occurred in the sense that an allele does not completely mask the expression of its allelic pair, instead an intermediate phenotype, which is a combination/blending of both parental phenotypes is produced.
In this case, the red flowered snapdragon (RR) does not completely cover up the expression of white flower (rr), hence a hybrid/heterozygous offspring is produced that combines the phenotypic characteristics of both parents to form an intermediate flower colour (pink). Hence, it can be said that Red flower is incompletely dominant over white flower or no allele/trait is dominant or recessive to another.
For multicellularity to develop, there must be a mechanism of signaling among cells in the multicellular organism. Which of the structures in the cell membrane receives signals from the environment or from other cells?
Answer:
Receptors
Explanation:
The cell membrane has receptors integrated or embedded into to it known as Membrane receptors or trans-membrane receptors . Membrane receptors are specialized proteins and act in cell signalling by receiving extracellular molecules by binding to them.
In multi-cellular organisms cell signalling allows speciation o groups of cells and when the signal is released the membrane receptors are the ones that will receive it.
An ionic bond is formed when _____. See Concept 2.3 (Page 37) An ionic bond is formed when _____. See Concept 2.3 (Page 37) both atoms are equally attractive to electrons one atom transfers an electron to another atom both atoms are electrically neutral atoms are subjected to radioactive isotopes both atoms are nonpolar
Answer: The ionic bond is when one atom transfers an electron to another atom
Explanation:
Ionic bond is formed between oppositely charged substances - a positively charged substance, and a negatively charged substance.
Usually, an atom donates its electron (become positively charged) to another atom to complete its outermost shell (becoming negatively charged).
Thus, the formation of transfer of electrons creates an IONIC BOND
You can more easily prevent ___________________ or at least make sure they are detected early and managed well if you research those associated with your patient's diagnoses, diagnostics, and treatment, and if you report all abnormal dat
Answer: Diseases
Explanation:
As the saying goes 'prevention is better than cure', so also diseases can be easily prevented or managed well if only it is detected early or abnormal symptoms are quickly reported for diagnosis and treatment.
Early detection/diagnosis could help in disease prevention or its management in your body by
- administering vaccine to boost the immune system
- administering drugs to combat premature disease-causing organisms (pathogens)
- adjusting surroundings, lifestyle or diets to enhance body fitness
I observe that squirrels that live in the southeastern United States are much thinner than squirrels that live in the northeastern part of the country. I theorize that this is because the squirrels that live in the northeast have greater fat reserves for the winter months when food is scarce. Is this a scientific theory?
Answer:
No, it is not a scientific theory.
Explanation:
A scientific theory is a proposition that is made to explain the various phenomena that are occurring in nature and it is supported by experiments that have repeatability and well-analyzed results. Scientific theories are usually tested in experiments under controlled conditions and verified as well.In the given situation, the theory made by the observer is not being tested through any experimentation or quantification and therefore, it is just a hypothesis and not a scientific theory.Childbirth in mammals would be an example of endocrine-controlled negative feedback, because the production of oxytocin during childbirth results in additional oxytocin being synthesized by the posterior pituitary gland.
a.trueb.false
Answer:
The answer is option a. False.
Explanation:
Childbirth in mammals is not an example of endocrine-controlled negative feedback mechanism. In negative feedback mechanism one of the end product controls the activity of the pathway to stop further release of the product. In the example, the production of oxytocin during childbirth resulted in further synthesis and secretion of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.
Childbirth in mammals is an example of endocrine-controlled positive feedback mechanism.
Mrs. Jones is to have hip surgery next Tuesday. She and her doctor have discussed using an auutologous blood transfusion. What does this mean for Mrs.Jones?
Answer:
The medical surgery is done to remove the damaged part or to make the body parts functional again if there is any problem in the proper functioning of the body.
Mrs. Jones has an autologous blood transfusion. This means the individual's blood is used for the transmission. Mrs. Jones will receive her own blood that she has deposited before the surgery. After the surgery the same deposited blood is used in the blood transfusion.
ction potentials typically move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body. This is due to which of the following?A. the temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spikeB. the temporary inactivation of sodium and potassium channels following the action potential spikeC. the movement of sodium ions out of the cell D. the myelination of the axon membrane
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "the temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spike".
Explanation:
Action potentials, also known as "spikes" or "impulses", are electric impulses that neurons use to send information from the cell's body down to the axon. The impulses are created when ions travel across the neuron's membrane creating a depolarization current. This depolarization current is responsible for an temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spike. When neurons are hyperpolarized they are not able to produce another action potential. In consequence, actions potentials move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body, as well as, adjacent locations go trough similar depolarization processes.
ANSWER:
NONE OF THE ABOVE OPTIONS GIVEN ARE CORRECT.
Correct answer is that Action potentials typically move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body because the absolute refractory period prevents a depolarization from occurring in the direction from which the impulse came.
EXPLANATION:
Axons are a key component of a neuron, they conduct electrical signals in the form of an action potential from the cell body of the neuron to its axon terminal where it synapses with another neuron. An axon is insulated by a myelin sheath throughout its length to increase the velocity of these electrical signals allowing signals to propagate quickly.
Axons which are covered by a myelin sheath, a multilayer of proteins and lipids, are said to be myelinated. If an axon is not surrounded by a myelin sheath, it is unmyelinated. Myelination is the formation of a myelin sheath. Myelin sheaths insulate axons to increase the speed of electrical signal conduction. This allows myelinated axons to conduct electrical signals at high speeds.
Once an action potential has occurred at a patch of membrane, the membrane patch needs time to recover before it can fire again. At the molecular level, this absolute refractory period corresponds to the time required for the voltage-activated sodium channels to recover from inactivation, i.e., to return to their closed state.
THE ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD ensures that the action potential MOVES IN ONLY ONE DIRECTION along an axon. The currents flowing in due to an action potential spread out in both directions along the axon. However, only the unfired part of the axon can respond with an action potential; the part that has just fired is unresponsive until the action potential is safely out of range and cannot restimulate that part.
_______ is located in the anterior neck produces key hormones for metabolism
Answer:
THYROID GLAND
Explanation:
Thyroid gland functions in metabolisms by activities of thyroid cells.This cells withdraws Iodine from metabolites and combine it with amino acid tyrosine for productions of Thyroid hormones:
ThyroxineT3,(20%)
TriiodothyronineT4(80%). This production is under the influence of Thyroid stimulating hormones,regulated by the pituitary gland,
T3 and T4 increase calorinogenesis, (liberation of heat from digestion to supply energy,and oxygen consumption of the heart.)
Deficiency of thyroid hormones are goiters, hypothyroidism, and hyperthyroidism
1. Psychologists have used four perspectives in their efforts to explain motivation. These include an emphasis on instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and: A) drive reduction. B) 360-degree feedback. C) refractory periods. D) basal metabolic rate. E) a fixed behavior pattern.
Answer:
A) drive reduction
Explanation:
Motivation is the urge that fuels and directs human with the energy to accomplish a given task. Motivational theory is accustomed with the role of searching for what drives individuals to work towards a goal or a task.
The drive reduction theory explains physiological ideology required bring out an aroused tension state that motivates an organism to satisfy the need.
Instincts Theory reflects innate and fixed pattern of complex behavior in animals. For example, making holes of crabs for safety.
Optimum Arousal Theory drive people to engage in certain activities in the quest to keep up with an optimum level of physiological arousal.
Hierarchy of motives: According to Maslow's pyramid, hierarchy of motives is explained based on need to satiate or quench the least physiological needs in order to be active before subsequent level needs.
The four perspectives psychologists use to explain motivation include instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and drive reduction. The correct answer is drive reduction, as it posits that our behavior is motivated by the need to fulfill biological needs.
Explanation:The four perspectives psychologists use to explain motivation are instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and drive reduction. The drive reduction theory, option A, proposes that our behavior is driven by biological needs. For example, when you're thirsty, that need creates a drive to find water. This drive is then reduced once you've had a drink, thus fulfilling your body's need for water.
Others options like 360-degree feedback, refractory periods, and basal metabolic rate, although relate to psychology, they aren’t typically connected with the theory of motivation. The concept of a fixed behavior pattern could possibly be linked to the instinct theory of motivation, but it's generally not considered a separate theory of its own.
Therefore, the answer is A: drive reduction.
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Johann Sebastian Bach, renowned for his huge repertoire of musical compositions in the sixteenth century, was also, as a boy, an outstanding singer in the soprano range until he was about sixteen. That boys become men is axiomatic, and the change in voice is a characteristic of _______
Answer:
sexual dimorphism
Explanation:
Dimorphism means having two different forms, therefore sexual dimorphism is a phenomenal where two sexes of the same species will exhibit different characteristics apart from having different sex organs.
When John was young he could sing soprano because he had not yet undergone puberty. One of the changes that happens in boys is the change in voice which only happens to males making them different from females.
The change in voice that occurs in boys, like the transition Johann Sebastian Bach experienced, is a characteristic of puberty. This is due to an increase in the production of androgens, which leads to the growth of the larynx and the deepening of the voice.
Explanation:The change in voice that is mentioned about Johann Sebastian Bach, is a characteristic of puberty in males. Puberty is a biological stage during which a child's body matures into an adult capable of sexual reproduction. It is marked by a rapid growth spurt and the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, including voice deepening in boys.
This change occurs due to the increased production of androgens—the male sex hormones, particularly testosterone, which causes the larynx (or voice box) to grow and the vocal cords to lengthen and thicken, resulting in a lower-pitched voice. This period of change is an integral part of human development.
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Which viral genome is likely to require an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase for transciption upon viral entry?
Answer:
(-) sense single-stranded RNA
Explanation:
Negative sense refers to viruses that use the negative sense single stranded RNA as their genetic material.
It is essential for the negative viral strand is complimentary to the mRNA so it is converted to a positive RNA by RNA polymerase.
Negative sense single stranded RNA virus require an RNA dependent RNA polymerase for transcription. This is because it essential in encoding proteins by catalyzing the complimentary RNA strand to the given RNA tempelate.
Bacteria of the genus Mycobacterium are difficult to stain because of the waxy material associated with their unique cell walls. Which of the following stains is used to stain Mycobacterium?a. Gram stain
b. Acid-fast stain
c. Counterstain
d. Endospore stain
e. Simple stain
Although hydroelectricity is the least expensive energy source used to generate electricity most utility companies in The United States do not use this form of energy because?
The usage of hydroelectricity in the US is limited by geographical conditions, the potential environmental impacts of hydroelectric stations, the high costs and time consumption of setting up these stations, and inconsistency in electricity supply due to variability in water flow.
Explanation:Hydroelectricity, although a renewable and relatively inexpensive source of energy, is not more dominantly utilised by utility companies in the United States due to several reasons. Firstly, this method of generating power is dependent on geographical locations with considerable amounts of running water, making it less feasible in certain parts of the country where such resources are not readily available.
Secondly, despite hydroelectric power being a cleaner energy source compared to fossil fuels, the process of establishing hydroelectric stations and dams can lead to environmental concerns such as the displacement of habitats and ecological systems. The installation of these power plants can also be costly and time-consuming.
Lastly, despite hydroelectricity being renewable, the variability in water flow due to seasonal changes can impact the consistency of electricity supply. Therefore, while the United States does use this form of energy (around 10% of the total usage), it is limited by geographical, environmental, and operational factors.
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The allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). A man heterozygous for dimples marries a women who is also heterozygous for dimples. What is the mans genotype and the woman genotype .
Man's genotype is Dd and women's genotype Dd.
Man's phenotype= dimple
woman's phenotype =dimple
Explanation:
Dimples are usually considered a dominant trait, this means that the presence of a dominant allele will pass the trait of the dimple to the progeny.
Dimples are dominant traits that are said to be irregular as the trait appearance is affected by other genes also.
The allele dominant for dimple will pass the trait and those with recessive allele will have no dimple is the logic.
Which phenotypic ratio is likely to occur in a dihybrid cross of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous?
Answer:
9:3:3:1
Explanation:
If two parents for a dihybrid cross are fully heterozygous for two genes, the phenotype ratio comes 9:3:3:1. Here, the alleles of both genes should exhibit complete dominance-recessiveness. This means that one allele of a gene should be able to mask the expression of its another allele. Similarly, alleles of one gene genes should assort in a random manner during anaphase-I irrespective of the assortment of alleles of another gene.
Under these conditions, each parent produces four types of gametes in equal proportion. And the random fusion of these gametes gives progeny in 9:3:3:1 phenotype ratio.
For example, a dihybrid cross between TtRr and TtRr would produce progeny in the following phenotype ratio=
9 tall and red: 3 tall and white: 3 dwarf and red: 1 dwarf and white
Here the allele T gives "tallness" while the allele "t" gives "dwarfism". The dominant allele "R" gives "red flowers" while the recessive allele "r" gives white flowers.
In a dihybrid cross of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous, the phenotypic ratio will likely be 9:3:3:1. This is because of independent assortment and dominance, and these proportions can be confirmed using a Punnett square.
Explanation:In a dihybrid cross of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous, the phenotypic ratio is likely to be 9:3:3:1. This is due to independent assortment and dominance. When considering specific traits such as seed texture or seed color, you could expect that three quarters of the F2 generation offspring would express the dominant trait and one quarter would express the recessive trait. This can be broken down into two 3:1 ratios. Applying the product rule, the proportion of round and yellow (both dominant traits) F2 offspring would be (3/4 x 3/4) = 9/16. Similarly, the proportion of wrinkled and green (both recessive traits) would be (1/4 x 1/4) = 1/16. These proportions can also be confirmed using a Punnett square.
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What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?
PR interval represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity
Explanation:
An electrocardiogram is an electrical action produced by the heart that can be estimated by an arrangement of electrodes located on the heart exterior. The P wave is the initial wave on the ECG because the performance potential for the heart is created in the sinoatrial (SA) node, positioned on the atria.
The QRS collection points to the sequence of the Q, R, and S waves. The R wave, a skyward wave, is the usual obvious characteristic of an ECG. The duration of time from the incipience of the P wave to the start of the QRS system is termed the PR interval. This interlude depicts the time among the origin of atrial depolarization and the incipience of ventricular depolarization.
The P wave in an ECG tracing represents the time from the start of atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity. It demonstrates the time it takes for electrical activity to pass from atria to ventricles.
Explanation:In an ECG tracing, the P wave represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity. This wave shows the depolarization of the left and right atria, signaling the start of the contraction phase. The time interval between the start of this wave and the start of the QRS complex, which signifies the ventricular depolarization, reflect the time it takes for the electrical activity to pass from atria to ventricles via the AV node.
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most cells that have become transformed into cancer cells have which of the following when compared to normal, healthy cell?
Answer:
Explanation: Normal cells stop growing (reproducing) when enough cells are present.cancer cells will continue to grow even when there are enough cells present. This continued growth often results in a tumor (a cluster of cancer cells) being formed.
Cancer cells don’t interact with other cells as normal cells do. cancer cells dont respond to signals from other cells. Normal cells are either repaired or die (undergo apoptosis) when they are damaged or get old. Cancer cells are either not repaired or do not undergo apoptosis.
Normal cells secrete(release) substances that make them stick together(cluster) in a group. Cancer cells fail to make these substances, and can “float away to a distant region in the body.
cancer cells dont have the ability to spread metastasize.
Cancer cells dont exhibit maturity because they produce at a faster rate before each cell matures
Cancer cells have the ability to hide that is re-occur after it has shown to be gone.
Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?
a. a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell
b. two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides
c. a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell
d. two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides
Answer:
The correct option is D. (Two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides)
Explanation:
The plasma membrane creates a barrier between the interior part of the cell and the cytoplasm. It is consisting of proteins and phospholipids and bi-layered in nature. Phospholipids are known as the main component of the plasma membrane.
Phospholipids are composed of alcohol and fatty acids and they are arranged in a specific manner. Each phospholipid molecule contains a water-hating tail that is hydrophobic in nature and a water-loving head which is hydrophilic in nature and the polar heads face the outside.
Final answer:
The correct arrangement is two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides, forming a phospholipid bilayer that acts as a barrier, maintaining the integrity of the cell. The correct option is d.
Explanation:
The correct phospholipid arrangement that makes the most sense, given that water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, is d. The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer. In this structure, the hydrophilic (water-loving) polar heads of the phospholipids face the aqueous environments of the cell's interior and exterior, while the hydrophobic (water-fearing) non-polar tails face inward, away from the water, creating a nonpolar region between both layers. This arrangement is critical because it allows the plasma membrane to act as an effective barrier to separate cellular contents from the external environment, maintaining the integrity of the cell in its water-based surroundings.
Swabbing the surface of your skin anywhere on your body and culturing that sample in the lab is likely to result in the growth of millions of bacterial cells on the culture plate, even if you practice good hygiene. True / False.
Answer: True
Explanation:
There is something called Skin flora. This refers to a group of microorganisms that reside on the skin. Staphlococcous aureus and Staphlococcous epidermidis are common examples. The Skin flora protects the skin from pathogenic organisms.
When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following sets of structures would you be able to isolate from the cell?
The options are:
A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site
B) separated ribosomal subunits, a polypeptide, and free tRNA
C) an assembled ribosome with a separated polypeptide
D) separated ribosomal subunits with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA
E) a cell with fewer ribosomes
Answer:
The correct answer is A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site.
Explanation:
There are three sites in a ribosome E, P, and A. From A site aminoacyl tRNA enters the ribosome. When this tRNA shifts to P site the amino acids which were attached to the tRNA that was at P place shifts to a new tRNA molecule that replaced the old one.
The old deacylated tRNA leaves the mRNA-ribosome complex from E- site. So when translation reaction was to be experimentally stopped and there is no corresponding tRNA enters the A site then only an assembled ribosome with polypeptide chain attached to tRNA in P site can isolate from the cell because no tRNA is present at E and A site.
At the completion of translation when the ribosome encounter a stop codon on the mRNA, a complex consisting of the newly made protein, the ribosomal subunits, and the mRNA could be isolated from the cell. The protein release factors trigger this termination process.
Explanation:When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA during the process of translation, it indicates the termination of the protein synthesis. At this point, there is no corresponding tRNA that enters the A site of the ribosome. The components you would be able to isolate if the translation were experimentally stopped at this stage would primarily be the newly synthesized protein, the ribosomal subunits (both small and large), and the mRNA. The protein release factors recognize these stop codons and instruct the enzyme peptidyl transferase to release the nascent protein. Subsequently, the ribosomal subunits dissociate from each other and the mRNA.
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