Answer: It was caused during the development of the child before it was born. As it was forming, the tissue did not fuse together. The cause of this could have been what the mother came in contact with, such as food, drinks, or what medications she was taking.
Answer: During the development of fetus, tissues of face and mouth didn't fuse properly so they remained open when the fetus was in the process of development.
Explanation: Many factors can cause this condition such as exposure of a mother to some environmental conditions, what mother eats during pregnancy like some medicines, alcohol. May be the parents contained the gene that can cause this condition. This condition is inherited sometime if there is the history of this condition in the family. Sometimes, obese and diabetic women also gives birth to a baby with the condition of cleft lip and cleft palate.
Students with high-incidence disabilities often require substantial special education services and supports outside the general education classroom?
True
False
The given statement is true because the students with high incidence disability will require some special education and special services outside the general education
Explanation:
High incidence disabilities are the children's who are identified with a higher rate of mental emotional disorders like the autism spectrum disorders the communication disorders the intellectual disabilities the specific learning disabilities and the emotional and the behavioral disorder
They must be given special learning apart from the general learning and they must also be given special services in learning
What is the primary problem seen in Healthy People 2020âs emphasis on choosing healthy lifestyle behaviors, such as daily exercise or healthy food choices?
Answer:
The primary problem is that public policy focuses on personal responsibility but decides to ignore the environmental and social changes needed for people's well-being. This way, it all seems to rely solely on the personal decisions of each individual, when the issues regarding the American healthcare system are still unaddressed.
The primary issue with Healthy People 2020's emphasis on healthy lifestyle behaviors is the difficulty in distinguishing whether health improvements are due to lifestyle changes or other factors. Also, it does not adequately account for the challenges posed by unhealthy market goods, sedentary habits, and the nuanced management of diet and exercise.
Explanation:The primary problem seen with Healthy People 2020's emphasis on choosing healthy lifestyle behaviors, such as daily exercise or healthy food choices, is that it's inherently difficult to distinguish whether an improvement in health outcomes is due to these lifestyle changes or from other factors, such as health care expenditures like regular check-ups.
For instance, longevity and health outcomes can be affected by a person's lifestyle habits, like their diet and exercise routines, risky behaviors, and consumption of harmful items like tobacco. Moreover, managing human nutrition involves a delicate balance between food intake, storage, and energy expenditure. An imbalance can lead to health problems like obesity, which in turn can elevate risks for diseases like type-2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
Unhealthy market goods like processed foods, sweetened drinks, and snacks are replacing homemade goods. Still, simply limiting access to such foods is not enough to address the obesity issue or encourage healthier living. Also, with more sedentary leisure activities like computer games and web surfing, it becomes more challenging to instill daily exercise and healthy eating as fundamental parts of one's living habits.
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How do the Electronic Transaction and Coding Standards correlate to coding and why are they important?
Answer:
Explanation:
The electronic transaction and coding standards are important because health care claims are the most basic and common type of electronic medical transactions. The biller uses the claim to request for reimbursement on the behalf of providers. Claims generally includes information about the patient, the person standing as the provider, the patient’s health insurance plan, incorporating with codes for the procedure and diagnosis.
The same way medical coders have to use the appropriate set of codes to describe a procedure, the biller also have to use the right type of EDI to perform the billing operation.
__________ occurs during meiosis, in which chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly; as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes.
Answer: Aneuploidy occurs during meiosis, in which chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly; as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes.
Explanation: In Aneuploidy, abnormal chromosome number is not an exact multiple of haploid. That is, there might be one chromosome left (45) or one chromosome more (47) than normal (46).
Aneuploidy results from non-disjunction during gametogenesis. The homologous chromosome fail to separate during mitosis or meiosis. Therefore, one daughter cell receives an extra chromosome while the other daughter cell is deficient of one. Following fertilization, the resulting zygote will have either one homologous chromosome (monosomy) or three homologous chromosomes (trisomy).
You are the President of Lawrence College. You and the American Red Cross Shelter Manager have contacted the Incident Command Post concerning the ability to meet the nutritional and long term pharmaceutical needs of the elderly residents. The Liaison Officer requests assistance from theEmergency Operations Center. What NIMS Management Characteristic is being demonstrated?Comprehensive Resource ManagementScenario:
You are the Middle School Principal.
You and the Shelter Manager notify the Incident Command Post that several people are complaining of severe stomach cramps, diarrhea, and vomiting.
You ask for assistance from medical and public health personnel.
You also request additional sanitation supplies, bedding, and bathing materials.
The Operations Section Chief is requesting additional assistance from the Emergency Operations Center for a specialized monitoringteam to be deployed to the shelter to survey for a possible outbreak. Survey results will be shared with Health and Public Works departments.
You are the President of Lawrence College. You and the American Red Cross Shelter Manager have contacted the Incident Command Post concerning the ability to meet the nutritional and long term pharmaceutical needs of the elderly residents. The Liaison Officer requests assistance from theEmergency Operations Center. What NIMS Management Characteristic is being demonstrated?
Answer: Comprehensive Resource Management
Explanation:
The Federal Emergency Management Agency or FEMA created the Emergency Management Institute to create a web portal that helps US officials improve their knowledge of the actions to be taken in emergency situations.
The National Incident Management System or NIMS is the emergency incident management system that contemplates the incident management jurisdiction, that is, separates the incident at the local, state, or national level, through protocols to follow.
In this case, Comprehensive Resource Management is an emergency mechanism used to track, manage, request, or mobilize resources (physical or human resources) in an emergency.
_________________________________________
Question 2.Scenario:
You are the Middle School Principal.
You and the Shelter Manager notify the Incident Command Post that several people are complaining of severe stomach cramps, diarrhea, and vomiting.
You ask for assistance from medical and public health personnel.
You also request additional sanitation supplies, bedding, and bathing materials.
The Operations Section Chief is requesting additional assistance from the Emergency Operations Center for a specialized monitoring team to be deployed to the shelter to survey for a possible outbreak. Survey results will be shared with Health and Public Works departments.
What NIMS Management Characteristics are you supporting? Select all that apply.
Common Terminology Modular Organization Incident Action Planning Integrated Communications Unified Command Information and Intelligence ManagementAnswer: Modular Organization and Information and Intelligence Management.
Explanation:
In emergencies, the National Incident Management System (NIMS) establishes an action protocol that contemplates the actions to follow when the emergency increases.
The NIMS management first supports the Modular Organization, which states that as the emergency situation increases, the organization must be increased to deal with the emergency situation. This extension of the case would lead the Chief of the Operations section to analyze the information and take appropriate measures; this is known as information and intelligence management.
I hope this information can help you.
Final answer:
The NIMS Management Characteristic being shown is Comprehensive Resource Management, which involves coordinating resources across multiple organizations during an emergency, as demonstrated in both the Lawrence College scenario and the coordination of FEMA responses to disasters.
Explanation:
The NIMS Management Characteristic being demonstrated in the first scenario is Comprehensive Resource Management. This characteristic involves the coordination and integration of resources such as personnel, equipment, and supplies coming from multiple organizations to support the incident response and recovery efforts. In the context provided, the President of Lawrence College and the American Red Cross Shelter Manager's coordination with the Emergency Operations Center exemplifies the process of managing resources comprehensively to meet the needs of elderly residents during an emergency.
In the second scenario, where the Middle School Principal and Shelter Manager report health issues and request medical assistance and supplies, the Operations Section Chief further engages in Comprehensive Resource Management by asking for specialized monitoring teams. This coordinated effort, which integrates public health and emergency services, exemplifies the effective management of resources to tackle an emergency effectively.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) plays a critical role in coordinating response efforts in the event of a disaster. As described in the information provided, FEMA's responsibilities include the preparation of plans and reports, assessment of user needs, support for professional organizations, interagency coordination, and outreach programs. FEMA's involvement in mitigating and responding to various emergencies, like earthquakes and other natural disasters, clearly demonstrates the application of Comprehensive Resource Management.
An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true?Select one:a. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.b. The EMT is negligent because the patient died.c. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.d. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Answer:D). The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act.
Explanation: This is because there is no 'duty to act' for off EMTs. In fact, EMTs are considered civilians when off duty and can only act when on duty under the authorization of their medical control physician.
If they do, it would be considered illegal and also expose them to great risks if anything went wrong.
I hope you found this helpful .
An off-duty EMT is not legally negligent for not stopping to assist at the scene of an accident as there is generally no duty to act, unless under specific legal obligations.
Explanation:The question revolves around whether an off-duty EMT is negligent for not stopping to assist at the scene of a major vehicle accident. According to the options provided, the correct answer is that the EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. In general, unless there is a specific legal duty to act, such as a contractual obligation, or if the EMT had created the emergency situation, an off-duty EMT does not have a legal requirement to provide aid. Additionally, the fact that the EMT had a doctor's appointment is not relevant to the negligence determination. It's important to note that while professional and ethical considerations may compel medical professionals to render aid when able, the decision not to stop does not necessarily constitute legal negligence.
Low-incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than high-incidence disabilities.
True
False
Low incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than highly incidence disabilities. Thus, this statement is true.
What is low incidence disability and high incidence disability?Low incidence disabilities happen less often and greater uncommon in world population of students.
Typically there is only 1% of student have low-incidence disability.
High incidence disabilities are common in world population of student. There is 14% of student have high incidence disabilities.
Difference between high and low incidence disabilities.
Low incidence disabilities are generally occurs low example a student suffered from intellectual disabilities, multiple disorder like visual impairments, traumatic brain injury and other health issue .
High incidence disabilities are common among the students when a student suffered from emotional and behavior disorder , specific learning disabilities and other health issue. So we can day that low incidence disabilities are more visible than high incidence disabilities.
Therefore, low incidence disabilities are generally more visible or easily observed than highly incidence disabilities. Thus this statement is true.
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How can the concept of nutrient density of foods help you to develop a healthy eating pattern?
Answer:
Nutrient density or nutrient dense foods are foods that contains vitamins, minerals and other beneficial nutrients for good health with little or the right weight gain.
Explanation:
Eating food with the right nutrient density and in recommended amounts will results in building a healthy eating pattern, good growth and development and an healthy living.
After instructing a primiparous client who is breast-feeding on how to prevent nipple soreness during feedings, the nurse determines that the client needs further instruction when she states which of the following?
"I should position the baby the same way for each feeding."
Answer:
a. "I should position the baby the same way for each feeding."
Explanation:
The recommended nursing intervention for nipple sore is to breast feed the neonate by switching between breasts alternatively. The client shall start feeding with the breast which is less sore because the first few minutes of initial sucking by the baby is vigorous. The baby's position shall be changed multiple times during feeding so that the pressure implied during sucking by baby's mouth shall be diffused to different part of breast causing less pain. Hence, if the mother states that she should feed the baby in same position, She needs further instruction and education regarding sore nipple prevention.
Final answer:
The client needs further instruction on preventing nipple soreness during breastfeeding because she should not position the baby the same way for each feeding. Varying breastfeeding positions can help reduce nipple discomfort and improve the effectiveness of latching.
Explanation:
The client who states "I should position the baby the same way for each feeding" needs further instruction to prevent nipple soreness during breastfeeding. This is because varying the baby's position can help reduce nipple soreness and ensure that the baby is effectively latching onto different parts of the breast, which distributes the pressure more evenly across the nipple. Utilizing positions like the "Laid-Back Nursing" position can facilitate a more comfortable latch and reduce discomfort for the mother. Additionally, responsive feeding and initiation of breastfeeding soon after birth are important practices to encourage successful breastfeeding, as suggested by maternity hospital guidelines.
Your client with diabetes asks you about insulin glargine (Lantus). You tell her that:____________.
Answer:
Lantus is a long-acting insulin used to treat adults with type 2 diabetes and adults and pediatric patients (children 6 years and older) with type 1 diabetes for the control of high blood sugar.
Explanation:
It causes body tissues to absorb glucose from the blood and reduces the rate at which the liver produces glucose. However, it is not advisable to continue administering doses when there is low blood sugar or when the patient is pregnant.
The city that attracted the largest number of African-American migrants from NYC, 1995-2000.
Answer:
Atlanta
Explanation:
Black migrants moved to the South from three regions of the United States between 1995 to 2000. Metropolitan areas, especially Atlanta had the highest number of African-American migrants from New York, San Francisco, Los Angeles, and Chicago. The top destinations for black people during this period of migration was Atlanta and Washington D.C. Unlike the blacks, the white moved to areas like Los Angeles, Phoenix, and Miami.
The reference material provided offers a historical account of the Great Migration during the early 20th century, especially focusing on Harlem, New York, as a significant destination for African-Americans but does not specify a city that attracted the most migrants from NYC between 1995-2000.
Explanation:The city that attracted the largest number of African-American migrants from New York City between 1995-2000 isn't specifically mentioned in the provided reference material. The historical context provided pertains to the Great Migration that occurred much earlier, during the early 20th century, when hundreds of thousands of African-Americans moved from the South to cities like New York, especially Harlem, which became a central hub for the emerging Negro middle class. This migration was largely due to economic opportunities and the demand for industrial labor during World War I, as well as the subsequent development of a new urban African-American culture and political activism. Key cultural landmarks such as the Harlem Renaissance emerged as a result of this demographic shift, further enriching American culture and society.
Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession
Answer:
At the beginning, being a nurse used to be considered a synonym of being a witch. Taking care of the sick was just an activity that men could carry out and in case women performed it was just because it was thought to be a religious vocation.
During the Crimean War, Florence Nightingale developed the pillars of what we still use nowadays in nursing. Later, when nursing migrated to the U.S some more people became founders of this practice, such as Lilian Ward, Mary Brewster and Lina Rogers. Ward and Brewster created a house to provide the poor with medical care in Manhattan. Obviously the way to provide this medical care has changed during all these years taking into account the materials that are used such as latex instead of leather and giving the chance to our new generations of nurses to attend specialized schools in order to receive a degree.
when looking at coronal brain sections how to know anterior limb vs posterior limb of internal capsule
Answer:
The coronal brain sections are the section of the brain that divides the brain into the anterior plane and posterior portion. Both portions of the brain anterior and posterior can be identified by the location and surrounding part of the brain.
The internal capsule can recognize by wrapped around the axial region of the cone known as the genu. The cone makes the posterior and anterior portion. The posterior limb is present between the lentiform nucleus and thalamus of the brain while the anterior limb situated between the lentiform nucleus and caudate.
In coronal brain sections, the anterior limb of the internal capsule is located between the head of the caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus, while the posterior limb is found between the thalamus and the lentiform nucleus, extending posteriorly from the genu.
When examining coronal brain sections, distinguishing between the anterior limb and posterior limb of the internal capsule can be achieved by understanding their anatomical positions relative to certain key brain structures.
Identifying Anterior and Posterior Limbs of the Internal Capsule
The internal capsule is a white matter structure in the brain that separates different parts of the basal ganglia and thalamus. It is divided into:
Anterior LimbGenu (the bend)Posterior LimbHere are the steps to distinguish between the anterior and posterior limbs:
Locate the Thalamus: The thalamus is a critical landmark situated medially. The posterior limb of the internal capsule lies directly adjacent to the thalamus.Identify the Caudate Nucleus: The anterior limb is located lateral to the head of the caudate nucleus.Genu as Reference Point: The genu is a bend where the anterior limb transitions into the posterior limb. The anterior portion extends towards the frontal lobes, while the posterior portion extends towards the occipital lobes.In summary, the anterior limb is positioned between the head of the caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus, while the posterior limb is situated between the thalamus and the lentiform nucleus, passing posteriorly relative to the genu.
John Maynard Keynes and his followers argued that the Great Depression was primarily the result of:_________
Answer:
insufficient aggregate spending on goods and services.
Answer:
Lack of appropriate and consistent feeding through lack of adequate spending on feeding
Explanation:
A chemist adds of a M sodium thiosulfate solution to a reaction flask. Calculate the millimoles of sodium thiosulfate the chemist has added to the flask. Be sure your answer has the correct number of significant digits.
Answer:
M/248
Explanation:
The formula for sodium thoisulphate is Na2S2O3.5H20 with the molar weight of on Na=23,S=32, O=16, H=1 multiply their weight by the coefficient then 18 by 5 then the in millimole is equals M/248 X 10^-3
A physician is working with a family whose daughter has been recently diagnosed with the chromosomal disorder Turner syndrome.
Which statement about the characteristics of human chromosomes is accurate?
Answer:
Turner syndrome occurs when one of the X chromosome is missing in female cells causing karyotype XO.
(Options are not given in the question)
Explanation:
Normally all the human beings have 2 sex chromosomes in each cell. Males has X and Y chromosomes while females has 2 X chromosomes in each cell for normal functioning of cells. While in turner syndrome, one normal X chromosome is missing or structurally altered thus giving the karyotype XO due to chromosomal nondisjunction.
A diet high in _____ is considered unhealthy, since this type of material is largely found in animal tissues.
If an inpatient experiences a syncopal episode during a radiographic procedure in the medical imaging department, how should the radiographer respond?
Answer:
The radiographer shall keep the patient in dorsal recumbent position with feet elevated.
Explanation:
Dorsal recumbent position is the one in which the patient lies on back with knees and thighs both flexed. the patient experiencing syncope may have a fall in blood pressure because increased diameter of blood vessels and decreased heart rate. A deficiency of oxygen supply to the brain causes syncope and fainting. Hence, placing the patient in dorso recumbent position with feet elevated improves blood flow to the brain.
Sympathetic pathways beginning with the neuronal cell body in the spinal cord and ending with the arrival at a target organ. You will need to use the scribble tool in the insert component of word or another application to draw the lines
Answer:
Hi
The sympathetic nervous system is one of the divisions of the autonomic nervous system. It involuntarily regulates the contraction of smooth muscles and the secretion of many glands. Its effects are opposite to those of the parasympathetic nervous system. The most important neurotransmitters are adrenaline and norepinephrine. Its main action is related to a fight response to external stimuli that can endanger the body, so it increases the frequency and strength of the heartbeat, dilates the lungs, dilates the pupil, increases blood pressure, It dilates the blood vessels and stimulates the production of sweat by the sweat glands. A schema is attached to the Word file.
Explanation:
Why wouldn’t your blood and other fluids become significantly acidic after you drink a half gallon of orange juice?
Answer:
It is as a result of a chemical called a buffer.
Explanation:
All functioning cells, organ, blood or any other substance need to always be constant (in this case pH) and a slight change will lead to a loss of function. Fortunately, there are chemicals called buffers that act by maintaining comstant internal environment, and they work by absorbing excess hydrogen ions or releasing them depending on the acidity or alkalinity thus resisting a change in the chemical environment.
Deontologists would agree that the increasing medical concern over obesity in the United States justifies federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Deontologists would agree that the increasing medical concern over obesity in the United States justifies federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs is True.
Final answer:
Deontologists may support federal food advertising regulations during children's TV programs based on ethical duties to protect child health, but effectiveness is questionable without addressing the broader context of parental influence and lifestyle.
Explanation:
True , It can be argued that deontologists, who focus on the adherence to duty and rules, may support federal regulation of high fat, high sugar, low nutrition food advertising during children's television programs on the basis that such regulations would align with ethical duties to protect children's health.
However, deontological ethics does not inherently prioritize the outcomes of actions, like the reduction of obesity rates, but rather emphasizes the morality of the actions themselves. This means a deontologist might support such regulations if they are seen as a moral duty to act in a way that respects the well-being of children, independent of parental influence on diet.
From a practical standpoint, despite the alarming rates of childhood obesity, some argue that regulating junk food advertisements does not tackle underlying issues such as lack of parental guidance and the influence of parents' own health and diet on their children, suggesting that regulations alone may not be effective without addressing the broader context of family and lifestyle choices.
Which of the following is true regarding the U.S. Public Health Service and its approach to the disclosure of significant financial interests?
The correct answer is; Any equity interest in a non-publicly traded company must be disclosed.
Further Explanation:
After researching the the United States Public Health Service, the one major thing that they must do is disclose any and all equity interest that they have gained in a non-publicly traded company.
One conflict of commitment of workers for the PHS is if they cancel a lab meeting that is mandatory in order to do consulting work for another company.
Any investor who works with the PHS must disclose any new or old financial conflicts within 60 days of discovering them.
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The U.S. Public Health Service's approach to the disclosure of significant financial interests is guided by principles of transparency and disclosure, which are balanced by laws which allow for certain exceptions. Additional barriers like potential conflicts of interest are also considered.
Explanation:The U.S. Public Health Service, like many government agencies, is guided by principles of transparency and disclosure in relation to significant financial interests. This approach is grounded within wide-spread governmental efforts to ensure transparency in order to enhance public trust. While this philosophy extends to lobbying efforts as seen through the Lobbying Disclosure Act and similar regulations endorsing transparency and disclosure, it is also essential to note there are certain exceptions as indicated by legislation like the Sunshine Act. This act allows for exceptions in instances where proprietary data is being discussed, personal privacy is in question, and in instances where information release could lead to financial harm.
Relevant to transparency in financial affairs, governments during the 1990s passed laws requiring banks to display operational transparency and to act swiftly once issues are identified. Advocacy for these transparency laws suggests that an informed public is integral to democratic processes, though it also acknowledges that some matters demand sensitivity and confidentiality. In the context of the Public Health Service, this principle implies their approach to disclosure is guided by a desire to communicate as transparently as possible regarding financial issues, while respecting boundaries where confidentiality is needed.
However, it is also critical to consider the concept of potential conflict of interests. The Securities and Exchange Commission, for example, regulates financial markets and would not be responsive to the interests it regulates, given it would denote a conflict of interest. Similar sensitivity can be expected to be practiced by the U.S. Public Health Service given the potential ethical dilemmas that might emerge from significant financial interests.
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Identify an advantage of using strength machines. A. trength machines provide extra support for special-needs clients. B. Strength machines can challenge the core stabilization system. C. Strength machines can improve athletic performance. D. Strength machines allow individuals to move in multiple planes of motion.
Answer:
The answer is A. Strength machines provide extra support for special-needs clients.
Explanation:
When all types of clients are considered (with regard to using strength machines)—especially as they (machines) could be complicated to use—an advantage of using strength machines is that it provides support for special-needs clients, and other categories of clients, even novices. At the end of the day, the effectiveness of strength machines will depend much on how helpful they have been to clients, especially those with special aims or needs that might not be general or popular.
Final answer:
Option A.strength machines provide extra support for special-needs clients, is correct. Strength machines provide additional support and safety, aiding in proper technique leading to increased muscular strength, bone strength, and maintenance of muscle mass during weight loss.
Explanation:
An advantage of using strength machines is that they can provide extra support for individuals, possibly including those with special needs. This support can be beneficial as it ensures proper technique and alignment, which can lead to enhanced safety during workouts, minimizing the risk of injury.
Strength machines can also help in maintaining muscle mass during weight loss and in increasing bone strength and muscular fitness. While some machines may offer benefits like challenging the core stabilization system or helping improve athletic performance, others are designed for more isolated movements rather than multiple planes of motion, thus not always supporting functional or compound movements.
Strength machines focus on overloading muscles to promote muscle strengthening, which contributes to overall health. Whether through resistance machines, resistance bands, or even homemade weights, regular strength training can help manage health conditions, improve muscle strength, and increase bone strength. Individuals engaging in muscular strength and endurance training, like using strength machines, can experience these benefits.
Click on all of the hypotheses that are testable using the scientific method.(One or more may apply) a. Vitamins reduce the chance that a patient will become sick b. Patients that take vitamins are less likely to conduct immoral behaviors c. Vitamin pills will always be the most effective method of meeting daily vitamin requirements. d. Vitamins enhance the religious experiences of patients e. Vitamins make patients' skin more beautiful.
Answer:
a, c and e
Explanation:
An hypothesis is a statement of fact that is subject to testing and verification using scientific methods
A scientific method is a stepwise approach involving the use of science and technology to test and verify an hypothesis
Vitamins are the essential things that are required by the body and deficiency of vitamins can cause deficient symptoms.
There are two types of vitamins and these are as follows:-
water-soluble vitaminsfat-soluble vitaminsAccording to the question, the hypotheses that are testable using scientific methods are:-
Vitamins reduce the chance that a patient will become sick.Vitamin pills will always be the most effective method of meeting daily vitamin requirements.Vitamins make patients' skin more beautiful.For more information, refer to the link:-
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Select any one of biometric techniques and explain the benifit and vulnerabilities associated with that method in 3-4 paragraphs.
Answer:
Taking the example of hand geometry, i-e fingerprints for verification, it is very easy to implement due to the relatively small size of the sensors. As with all digitally stored biometric data, there are risks of data theft.
Explanation:
Fingerprint sensors use scanners to scan the geometry of the patterns on the skin, usually the fingertips. These patterns are unique to each individual to a very high degree, roughly 1:64,000,000 pairs of fingerprints have the chance of being identical. These sensors are relatively easy to install, are cheap, and very user friendly. This makes this technique a very effective method.
Since the data collected by the scanners is almost always stored digitally in a device which is connected to the internet or has access points, there is always the threat of data theft which can result in identity theft and possible fraudulent activities.
You should not tell your family and friends about your fitness goals. A. True B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Answer:
true because they could help motivate you and push you forward towards your goal
Explanation:
A high-school basketball player suffers a grade 2 ankle sprain during mid season of the competitive schedule. After a 3-week course of rehabilitation, most of the pain and swelling have been eliminated. The athlete is anxious to get back into practice and competitive games as soon as possible, and subsequent injuries to other players have put pressure on the coach to force the athlete's return. Unfortunately, the athlete is still unable to perform the functional tasks (cutting and jumping) essential in basketball.
a. Who is responsible for making the decision regarding when the athlete can fully return to practice and game situations?
Answer:
the coach?
Explanation:
Final answer:
An athletic trainer is responsible for deciding when an athlete can return to play after an injury.
Explanation:
The person responsible for deciding when the athlete can fully return to practice and game situations is the athletic trainer. Athletic trainers are healthcare professionals who specialize in preventing, diagnosing, and treating muscle and bone injuries. They work closely with athletes to ensure their safe return to sports after an injury.
The athletic trainer must assess the athlete's readiness to perform functional tasks like cutting and jumping, which are essential in basketball, to prevent re-injury and promote proper healing.
Ignoring the athlete's limitations and forcing a premature return to play can lead to further damage and prolong the recovery process.
Which of the following is a federal intervention used to combat obesity?
directly establishing farmers' markets
requiring physical education in schools
producing advertisements for junk foods
decreasing sales taxes on food products
Answer:
requiring physical education in schools
Explanation:
In order to accelerate the prevention of obesity, the federal government needs to take some initiatives. Among the choices listed above, "requiring physical education in schools" is the most doable.
This will have an early impact on children who might become obese in the future. Providing them physical exercises will increase their activity level, thereby increasing the calorie burn from eating unhealthy food. This will also curve their bad eating habit, thus leading to more healthy diet in the future.
Directly establishing farmer's markets doesn't necessarily mean that the people will buy from them, thus it becomes unclear whether this can combat obesity.
Producing advertisement for junk foods is definitely not good. This will attract more people to buy unhealthy foods.
Decreasing sales tax on food products will enable people to buy more food. They'll tend to overbuy and, in turn, overeat.
Parker wants to improve their muscle ENDURANCE.
Parker currently lifts every other day for each muscle group, with heavy weights at 60-90% of their 1 RM while completing 2 sets of 15 repetitions.
What part of the FITT principle is Parker not correctly following to improve their muscle ENDURANCE?
1. Frequency
2.Time
3.Parker is following the FITT principle for Endurance
4. Intensity
Answer:
3
Explanation:
Answer:
3
Explanation:
Parker is following the FITT principle for Endurance
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:__________.
Answer:
You should administer on-line procedure which is to contact the on-call physician or registered nurse and request for special care instructions about the possibility for you to start the first steps in site on the aggressive treatment necessary, before heading to the hospital, informing about patient´s condition and trying to get a further detailed explanation on the patient´s problem and how long it has been going on, and stating as quickly as possible the patient medical history. If authorized, get the patient ready to be transported in an ambulance.
Explanation:
U.S. Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) are clinicians, trained to provide emergency medical care. Their actions in field are governed by state and local regulations for them to be under the supervision of medical direction through the advice of a medical advisory committee which issues a list of standard operating procedures or protocols that often vary from region to region.
Treatments and procedures provided by EMTs are clasified in two categories:
- Off-line medical orders or standing orders.
- On-line medical orders: which are procedures that must be explicitly approved by a base hospital physician or registered nurse by phone or radio. These procedures are high risk procedures.
Or a procedure can be both an on-line and a standing order depending on the level of the provider.
Their clinical level of practice does not include any medical acts beyond advanced first-aid but EMTs contribute to the chain of survival with a critical role in traumatic injuries, accident scenes or elder residences being skilled in applying oxygen therapy, blood glucose monitoring, bleeding control, management of burns, splinting of fractures if suspected, spinal injuries, childbirth, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, oral suctioning, insertion of oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways, and administration of intranasal Narcan with the exception of automated external defibrillation, semi-automatic defibrillation, pulse oximetry, auscultation of lung sounds, and administration of a limited set of medications like ASA, I.M. epinephrine, glucagon, oral glucose, dextrose, nalaxone, albuterol, ipratropium bromide, nitroglycerin, nitrous oxide, oxygen and acetylsalicylic acid. Training requirements and treatment protocols vary from area to area, but in some areas they may insert supraglottic airway devices and CPAP.
Some advanced EMT can provide intermediate life support (ILS) care including obtaining intravenous/intraosseous access, fluid resuscitation, use of supraglottic airway devices, administration of some additional medications, and basic cardiac monitoring.