A muscle contraction that results in no movement of the body is referred to as a(n) ________ contraction.

Answers

Answer 1
A muscle contraction that results in no movement of the body is referred to as an isotonic contraction. The isotonic contraction can be concentric and eccentric. Concentric contraction results in the muscle shortening, because the force the muscle is producing is greater than the resistance. Eccentric isotonic contraction on the other hand results in muscle lengthening because the resistance is being greater than the force the muscle is producing.
Answer 2

Final answer:

An isometric contraction is when muscle tension increases but there is no movement because the muscle does not change length. It differs from an isotonic contraction, where there is movement due to changes in muscle length while tension remains constant.

Explanation:

A muscle contraction that results in no movement of the body is referred to as an isometric contraction. During an isometric contraction, muscle tension increases but muscle length remains the same. It is a static contraction where the length of the muscle, or the joint angle, does not change, such as when pushing against a stationary object. An example of an isometric contraction in everyday life includes maintaining posture or bone and joint stability. Contrary to this, an isotonic contraction means the muscle changes length (shortens or lengthens) while the tension remains constant. Therefore, an isometric contraction is characterized by the generation of force without movement, and by the fact that during the contraction, the muscle neither lengthens nor shortens.


Related Questions

When joe thinks about his sorely missed girlfriend, he drinks alcohol, which helps dull his feelings. this best illustrates:?

Answers

This best illustrates being in a depressed state.
Being Depressed . In other words he is heartbroken

True or false? Data entry in the patient record is a combination of structured and unstructured data.

Answers

It is true, that the data entry in the patient record is a combination of structured and unstructured data. The structured data is standardized, pre-defined, computer-readable and easy to access from a database. Examples for structured data are name, dates, identification numbers, some other codes...
Unstructured data on the other hand is the information than can not be written and understood only with numbers. Human touch is needed in order these data to be presented and understand. Examples are: audio voice dictations, email messages and attachments.
Final answer:

Yes, data entry in the patient record combines structured data (easy to classify and analyze) and unstructured data (difficult to analyze due to non-standardized format).

Explanation:

True, data entry in the patient record is indeed a combination of structured and unstructured data. Structured data includes elements such as demographics, diagnostic codes, and medication lists that can be easily classified and analyzed. Conversely, unstructured data, which make up the majority of patient information, include the health reports, clinician notes, and imaging data. These type of data provides nuanced information about a patient's health but is harder to analyze due to its non-standardized, text-heavy format.

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Which of the following food contaminations would be suspected if the end of a can of tomatoes had begun to swell

Answers

There would be rust at the bottom of the can which is a biological contamination

Major depressive disorder is three times more common among __________ populations. high ses low ses middle class none of the above

Answers

Low ses is the answer. Hope this helps.

List the variables that should be included in a progressive resistance exercise program

Answers

the intensity or the amount of weight to be used,number of reps,number of sets, recovery,frequency training

A 64 year-old patient in hypertensive crisis is to receive furosemide (lasix) 40 mg iv. lasix comes in 100 mg/10 ml. how will the nurse administer the medication?

Answers

She will give it to the patient

Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial? arachnoid mater dura mater meninx mater pia mater epi mater?

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Spinal meninges are protective layers that cover the central nervous system, spinal roots and the spinal cord. Since these part of the body is the most complex because they control locomotor movements and affect our way of thinking, this must be protected.

The three types of spinal meninges are: dura mater, arachnoid meter and the pia mater. The outermost or the most superficial layer is the dura meter. It is composed of high collagen and fiber. Next to this is the arachnoid followed by the pia mater which is the layer closest to the spinal cord.

It is possible to drink too much and A , slow heart rate and breathing B, risk coma or death C , choke or suffocate on vomit D , all of above

Answers

D because any of these can happen at any time

Final answer:

Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to a slow heart rate and breathing, coma or death, and an increased risk of choking or suffocating on vomit.

Explanation:

Yes, it is possible to drink too much and experience A, slow heart rate and breathing, B, risk coma or death, and C, choke or suffocate on vomit. When a person consumes excessive amounts of alcohol, it can lead to alcohol poisoning, which can suppress the central nervous system and depress respiratory and cardiac functions. This can result in a slow heartbeat and breathing. In severe cases, alcohol poisoning can lead to coma or death. Additionally, excessive alcohol consumption can impair coordination and increase the risk of choking or suffocating on vomit if a person vomits while unconscious.

Give a summary of the guidelines for using sunscreen to prevent overexposure

Answers

Make sure to apply a sunscreen of at least 30 SPF or higher to be safe from UV rays. Make sure to apply topically evenly and generously. Reapply after 2 hours, swimming, or drying.

Guidelines for using sunscreen to protect from overexposure are:

1. Choose the appropriate type of sunscreen: This choice should be according to your type of hair. There are sunscreens of drier texture and others of oily texture, you must choose the one that best fits the natural characteristics of your skin.

2. Choosing the protection factor: When sun exposure is intentional - such as on the beach or in the pool - the sun protection factor (SPF) should be at least 30. However, people with fair skin, or who have very sensitive skin should use protectors with a protection factor of, at least, 50.

3. Know the right amount: When there is an intentional exposure, such as when going to the beach or pool, the correct way to use sunscreen is to apply two layers of the product all over the body or a teaspoon for face, head and neck; two teaspoons to the front and back of the torso; one teaspoon for each arm and two teaspoons for each leg. Sunscreen should be applied 15 minutes before sun exposure and reapplied every two hours while exposed.

Andrew was told by his physician that he would be able to control his diabetes if he controls his diet and avoids the use of sugar in his diet. andrew was given a(n) _____ framed health message by his physician.

Answers

In this situation, the physician gave Andrew a positively-frame message. Here, the physician's message was structured in terms of what Andrew could do - such as controlling his diet - rather than factors out of his control - such as his genetics.

Explain why antibodies allow scientists to target and identify specific disease agents.

Answers

Explain why antibodies allow scientists to target and identify specific disease agents.
Antibodies is a protein that has the ability to bind to a specific structure of another protein called antigen. It can bind that specific structure because protein(like enzyme) has a complex 3D structure. That makes a slight difference in the structure of molecule will cause it unable to bind with the antibodies. This feature called  "lock and key" and used in ELISA or any test that count antibody/antigen
Final answer:

Antibodies allow scientists to target and identify specific disease agents by binding to antigens on the surface of the disease agents. They can be used for diagnostic purposes and to distinguish between different strains or variants of a disease.

Explanation:

Antibodies allow scientists to target and identify specific disease agents because they are highly specific proteins produced by the immune system in response to foreign substances like pathogens. They recognize and bind to antigens, which are unique molecules found on the surface of disease agents. This binding allows scientists to detect and identify the presence of specific disease agents in samples or tissues.



For example, in the case of a viral infection, scientists can use antibodies to specifically target and identify the viral particles or proteins associated with the virus. They can also use antibodies to distinguish between different strains or variants of a particular disease agent.



Scientists can harness the specificity of antibodies for diagnostic purposes, such as in serological tests. These tests detect the presence of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to a specific disease agent. By measuring the levels of specific antibodies in a patient's blood, scientists can determine if the patient has been exposed to a particular disease and may have developed immunity.

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The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old client who is receiving iv heparin 5000 units q4h. at the initiation of therapy, the patient's control activated thromboplastin time (aptt) was found to be 35 seconds. one hour prior to the next scheduled dose, aptt is determined to be 92 seconds. based on this result, the nurse will:

Answers

Based on the aptt result, the nurse should immediately discontinue injections of Heparin to the patient. The patient is already having abnormally high aptt of 92. High aptt exceeding 70 which in the case of the patient is 92 is an indication that he is on spontaneous bleeding or hemorrhage. The nurse must immediately report the result to the attending physician for management.  

R.j. is a 55-year-old female who presents with acute onset left sided facial pain and an inability to move the left side of her face. she cannot smile, raise her eyebrow or even close her left eye, the immediate approach to this patient should include:

Answers

Answer: It sounds like Bells palsy

Explanation:

Final answer:

The immediate approach to this patient should include a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying cause of the facial pain and paralysis. The symptoms described are consistent with Bell's palsy, a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side of the face. Treatment may include the use of corticosteroids, antiviral medications, and physical therapy.

Explanation:

This patient is presenting with acute onset left sided facial pain and an inability to move the left side of her face. Based on the symptoms described, the immediate approach to this patient should include a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying cause. The symptoms of facial pain and facial paralysis on one side of the face are consistent with Bell's palsy.

Bell's palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face. It is thought to be due to inflammation of the facial nerve, which controls the muscles of the face. The exact cause of Bell's palsy is unknown, but it is thought to be related to viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus.

The treatment for Bell's palsy may include the use of corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and antiviral medications if a viral infection is suspected. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help regain muscle strength and function in the face.

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In order for pests to feel comfortable and survive well in a food facility they need access to

Answers

Food, water and shelter

Pests invade human places in order to obtain the resources they require for survival, namely food, water and shelter. Therefore, if pests obtain access to these resources, they are likely to stay and reproduces, resulting in an increase in pest population in the area. Therefore, the best measure for preventing pest infestation is to prevent access to such resources.
Final answer:

Pests require food, a suitable environment, and the absence of natural enemies to thrive in food facilities. Landscape complexity enhances the natural pest control by a variety of predators, reducing the need for pesticides. Maintaining diversity among these predators is crucial for efficient agriculture.

Explanation:

In order for pests to survive well in a food facility, they need access to adequate food sources, a suitable environment, and typically, a lack of predators or pest-suppressing organisms. Ecologists have noted that predators and parasites are essential in controlling pest populations and thereby reducing the reliance on costly and potentially harmful pesticides. Landscape complexity plays an important role in this regard, as it enhances the effectiveness of natural enemies of pests in suppressing these populations, which can lead to increased crop yields. It is observed that diverse ecosystems are more effective at pest control as compared to those with reduced enemy diversity.

Pests, like many organisms, require sufficient quality and quantity of food for their dietary needs. In colder climates, for example, the availability of food for pests typically decreases, setting a requirement for a threshold level of energy to be stored as fat for their survival. However, in warmer climates, certain pest-resistant plant species may thrive and provide a more comfortable environment for pests. Maintaining a diversity of predatory species is crucial since a loss of diversity among natural enemies of pests can make agriculture more difficult and expensive.

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A nurse provides dietary counseling for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. which instruction should be included?

Answers

Answer: The majority of calories should be in the form of carbohydrates and monounsaturated fats.

In general food intake must be dominated by carbohydrates and fat. Type 1 diabetes patient will have to use insulin, therefore having a higher risk of hypoglycemia and need to eat enough carbohydrate to prevent it.

According to the research by michael cody concerning students' assessments of what caused their intimate heterosexual relationships to break up, the number one cited cause was

Answers

The answer is fault.  Michael Cody asked why do people "break up". He and some students found: The number 1 is fault. These are traits that one partner did not like. Number 2 is unwillingness to compromise, meaning being stubborn. Number 3 is feeling constrained. Meaning, one partners desire to be free of the commitments and constraints of a relationship.

Fifty percent of homicide victims have _____. a. parents in jail b. alcohol in their bloodstreams c. family in show business d. cousins in law school

Answers

Fifty percent of homicide victims have "alcohol in their bloodstreams."


The utilization of alcohol may deliver unfavorable consequences for cerebrum tissues that influence judgment. Such adjustment in judgment has subsequently made liquor to fill in as an enhancer of homicide, which is presently perceived as a reason for untimely mortality in Africa. Alcohol improves the probability of hazard taking and provocative conduct by some potential exploited people; this may thus prompt violent communications and homicide.  

Most of all alcohol induced homicide includes individuals that are known to one another. Individuals inside the age gather 20– 40 are most defenseless because of incredible relational association that may wind up in mistaken assumptions and disappointments and thus inclining to causation of lawful offenses, including homicide.

Answer:

Alcohol in the Bloodstream

Explanation:

Which drugs are most likely to be prescribed as tranquilizers?
a. amphetamines
b. hallucinogens
c. opiates
d. barbiturates?

Answers

I believe the anwser is c
Final answer:

Barbiturates are most likely to be prescribed as tranquilizers, although benzodiazepines are commonly used as well for their reduced toxicity and effectiveness in short-term relief of severe conditions.

Explanation:

The drugs that are most likely to be prescribed as tranquilizers are barbiturates. Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants that can reduce anxiety and induce sleep. These drugs have largely been replaced by benzodiazepines in regular medical practice (particularly in the U.S.), because benzodiazepines are generally less toxic and still effective for short-term relief of severe, acute conditions. Any drug in these categories may be referred to as a tranquilizer.

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What is the second stage of the body’s response to stress?

Answers

it is called the resistance stage, I am not sure how to define it but this is what its is called, hope this helps have a blessed day

Answer:

Resistance stage.

Explanation:

The resistance stage is the second stage of the body's stress response. This stage begins when the body attempts an adaptation due to its tendency to seek internal homeostasis, ie the body tries to return to its normal state. In the “resistance phase”, the reactions are opposite to those in the first phase, and many of the early symptoms disappear, giving rise to a feeling of weariness and tiredness. If the stressor is continuous and the person has no strategies for coping with stress, the body depletes its adaptive energy reserve and moves on to the next stage.

After installation of a field-piped r-410a split heat pump, the unit should first be:

Answers

After installation of a field-piped R-410A split heat pump, the unit should first be:pressurized with nitrogen then leak checked.Heat Pumps that have been retrofitted from R-22 to R-407C should be leak checked with:pressurized nitrogen.The EPA regulations require that leaking commercial or industrial process refrigeration equipment must be repaired when the leak rate exceeds ______ of the charge per year.35%

Final answer:

The first step after installing a field-piped R-410A split heat pump is to evacuate and properly charge the unit with refrigerant. This ensures proper function and efficiency. Subsequent testing and the use of a programmable thermostat can further enhance the system's efficiency.

Explanation:

After the installation of a field-piped R-410A split heat pump, the unit should first be properly evacuated and then charged with refrigerant according to the manufacturer's specifications. It's important to ensure that all pipe connections are secure and there are no leaks. Once checked for leaks and the system is correctly evacuated, you can proceed with charging the refrigerant, which is a critical step as R-410A is a high-pressure refrigerant. After this, a performance test to check if heat transfer efficiency is optimal would be appropriate.

The process of charging a split heat pump system involves connecting the refrigerant supply to the service port and adding refrigerant until the desired pressure is reached. Precise procedures can vary depending on specific system requirements and manufacturer guidelines. It's essential to use equipment such as gauges and a vacuum pump that is compatible with R-410A. Additionally, the correct type and amount of refrigerant must be verified to match the needs of the system functionality.

Implementing features like a programmable thermostat can enhance efficiency by reducing the operation of the system when not needed. Regular maintenance of the system is also important to ensure that the split heat pump operates at peak efficiency, conserving energy and reducing costs in the long term.

Which of these is a sexual stereotype?
A)on average, females weigh less than males.
B)lesbians usually wear there hair short.
C)women have twice as many X chromosomes as men.
D)female hormone levels differ from those of males.

Answers

The correct answer is B) Lesbians usually wear their hair short because it is an oversimplified generalization about a specific group.

In this question, we need to identify a sexual stereotype.

A stereotype is a widely held but fixed and oversimplified idea or image about a particular group. Let's examine each option:

On average, females weigh less than males. - This is a factual biological difference between sexes and not a stereotype.Lesbians usually wear their hair short. - This is a stereotype because it is an oversimplified and generalized idea about a specific group based on their sexual orientation.Women have twice as many X chromosomes as men. - This statement is biologically inaccurate. Women have two X chromosomes, while men have one X and one Y chromosome.Female hormone levels differ from those of males. - This is another factual statement based on biological differences.

Therefore, the statement "Lesbians usually wear their hair short" is the example of a sexual stereotype.

Which respiratory disease is seen almost exclusively in patients with aids? pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia copd anthracosis eupnea?

Answers

Among the choices above, the answer is Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia. It was previously called as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). 


This is the most well-known shrewd disease in people with HIV contamination. It is currently one of the few creatures known to cause perilous crafty diseases in patients with cutting edge HIV contamination around the world. Well more than 100,000 instances of PJP were accounted for in the main decade of the HIV plague in the United States in individuals with no other reason for immunosuppression.

All of the following are sections of the cpt manual except

Answers

choices just right them in the comments

Loftus used her research to prove that __________. A. memories of childhood trauma are usually true B. adults’ memories are concrete and rigid C. children have better memories than adults D. false memories could be created using suggestion

Answers

D. false memories could be created using suggestion

Loftus' used her research to prove that false memories can be created using suggestions. This is important because it has implications for the use of eyewitness testimony in court. Hence option D is correct.

If eyewitnesses can be easily influenced by suggestion, then their testimony may not be as reliable as we once thought.

Elizabeth Loftus is a cognitive psychologist who has conducted extensive research on the malleability of memory. Her research has shown that memories can be easily influenced by suggestions, leading to the creation of false memories.

Therefore, option D) false memories could be created using the suggestion that is correct.

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Client a has schizophrenia believed to be caused by brain dysfunction, and he is being seen by a psychiatrist. client b has a mild eating disorder believed to be caused in part by inaccurate beliefs, and he is being seen by a clinical psychologist. client a will likely receive ________, and client b will likely receive ________.

Answers

Client A will likely receive an antipsychotic drug to treat schizophrenia, while Client B will likely receive cognitive therapy for a mild eating disorder. Thus, the correct answer is d. an antipsychotic drug; cognitive therapy.

Client A is being treated by a psychiatrist for schizophrenia, which is thought to be brought on by brain malfunction, client A will likely receive an antipsychotic drug A clinical psychologist is seeing Client , who has a modest eating disorder that may be partially induced by false beliefs, client B will likely receive cognitive therapy

Client A, who has schizophrenia believed to be caused by brain dysfunction, will likely receive an antipsychotic drug. Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to manage the symptoms of schizophrenia by blocking dopamine receptors and decreasing dopamine neurotransmission in the brain.Client B, who has a mild eating disorder believed to be caused in part by inaccurate beliefs, will likely receive cognitive therapy. Cognitive therapy, a form of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), aims to identify and change the inaccurate beliefs and negative thought patterns that contribute to the eating disorder.

This means the correct answer is d. an antipsychotic drug; cognitive therapy.

complete question:

Client A has schizophrenia believed to be caused by brain dysfunction, and he is being seen by a psychiatrist. Client

List three diseases that should concern healthcare workers today?

Answers

These are the ones that come to mind. Hope it helps!
HIV/AIDS
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C

Answer:

Cancer AIDS Depression.

Explanation:

Cancer, AIDS and Depression are diseases that have grown and spread very fast in this century we are living. Probably because of the busy lifestyle, the neglect of one's own protection and the stress of modern life. Health professionals have shown strong concern about the prevalence of these three diseases and the progressive increase in the number of infected people. This concern has led to an increase in scientific research to find technological advances that help infected people.

When are sports drinks appropriate for hydration?

Answers

Answer:

When you exercise in hot weather.

Explanation:

Answer:

When you exercise in hot weather.

A

Explanation:

Under which circumstances would a tourniquet be used?

Answers

Where are you talking about though

Manny's trainer wants him to do some anaerobic exercises to prepare for his upcoming competition. Which of the following would be the best option?

Answers

Heavy weight training, sprinting (running or cycling) and jumping. Basically any exercise that consists of short exertion, high-intensity movement is an anaerobic exercise. Heavy weight training is an excellent way to build strength and muscle mass.
Therefore, heavy weight training is the best option.

Who owns the patient’s medical records?

Answers

the physician's office are the ones that own patients medical records.
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