Answer:
Option-B
Explanation:
Pingelap is an atoll consisting of three islands: Daekae, Sukoru and Pingelap Island.
The present population of the atoll is 250 residents, the proportion of which has the color blindness called achromatopsia caused by the loss of the cone cells which respond to a different wavelength of light.
The achromatopsia on the atoll can be traced back in 1775 when a catastrophic typhoon swept the island and left only 20 individuals. One of these individuals named the Doahkaesa Mwanenihsed was the carrier of the disease and the inbreeding in the descendants of this individual resulted in the increase in the frequency of the recessive allele and is the cause of the affected individuals.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
In science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses supported by repeated experimental evidence holds true through time, it can be developed into a ________. A. It is not a guess. B. It is not static. C. It is tentative and dynamic and can be adjusted when new, compelling evidence is discovered. D. It is typically an overarching explanation that best fits all of the available information or evidence.
Answer:
In science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses supported by repeated experimental evidence holds true through time, it can be developed into a _THEORY
In science, a hypothesis or a group of hypotheses that have been supported by repeated experimental evidence over time can be formed into a theory. This theory, a dynamic explanation, is subject to revisions based on new evidence.
Explanation:In the field of science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses garner significant support from repeated experimental evidence and withstand scrutiny over time, they can be developed into a theory. This term 'theory' must not be confused with 'guess' or 'assumption'; it is an informed, plausible, and testable statement or group of statements linked together that have been confirmed via consistent, cross-validated evidence. A theory is not static; it is fluid and dynamic, subject to revisions or adjustments when new, compelling evidence is discovered. Therefore, it's considered an overarching explanation that best fits all the available information or evidence collected from numerous research and experiments.
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Most traits are governed by a combination of gene pairs rather than a single pair of genes. this is called __________.
Answer:
Polygenic inheritance
Explanation:
In polygenic inheritance, one characteristic or trait is controlled by a combination of two or more than two genes. As several genes control a trait in a polygenic trait therefore there are many possible phenotype is possible in this situation.
In humans, examples of polygenic traits are eye color, hair color, skin color, height, body shape, body weight, etc. There is equal influence of gene which are contributing to a trait in polygenic inheritance. So complete dominance is not seen in polygenic traits. Therefore the correct answer is polygenic inheritance.
Most traits are governed by a combination of gene pairs rather than a single pair of genes. This is called polygenic inheritance.
Polygenic traits often display a wide range of phenotypic variation due to the cumulative effects of multiple genes. Each gene involved typically has a small effect on the trait.
The combined effects of these genes result in a continuous spectrum of possible trait variations, leading to a bell-shaped distribution when plotted, often resembling a normal distribution or bell curve.
Furthermore, environmental factors can also influence the expression of polygenic traits, adding an additional layer of complexity.
The interaction between genetic factors and the environment can significantly influence the final phenotype.
Understanding polygenic inheritance is vital in various fields, including genetics, medicine, agriculture, and evolutionary biology.
Traits like human height, skin color, susceptibility to certain diseases, and intelligence are examples of polygenic traits.
These traits result from the combined influence of multiple genes and environmental factors, making them challenging to study and predict accurately.
Advancements in genetic research and technologies like genome-wide association studies (GWAS) have enabled a better understanding of polygenic inheritance, shedding light on the genetic basis of complex traits and diseases, which is crucial for developing targeted treatments and interventions.
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In the third stage of birth, the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are expelled from the uterus. This stage of birth is called the _________
Answer:
The "Afterbirth" stage.
Explanation:
The third stage of birth, where the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are expelled, is called the afterbirth. It follows the expulsion of the baby and concludes the childbirth process.
In the third stage of birth, the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are expelled from the uterus. This stage of birth is called the afterbirth. It follows the second stage of labor, where contractions are very strong and, with the mother's effort, expel the baby from the uterus.
During the afterbirth phase, the placenta, amniotic sac, and the remnants of the umbilical cord, which were vital for providing nutrients and oxygen to the baby while in the uterus, are delivered. This usually happens within a few minutes after the baby is born. The completion of the third stage marks the end of the childbirth process.
. Complete the below sentences using: catalyst, intolerance, lactose, chemical reaction, reused, lactase
The enzyme ??? breaks down the sugar ???.
If the body doesn’t produce much of this enzyme, people have what’s called lactose ???.
During the ???? the enzyme doesn’t get used up, but gets ???
Enzymes are substances that speed up chemical reactions which are also known as ???
Answer:
The sentences can be completed as follows:
The enzyme lactase breaks down the sugar lactose.
If the body doesn’t produce much of this enzyme, people have what’s called lactose intolerance.
During the chemical reaction the enzyme doesn’t get used up, but gets reused.
Enzymes are substances that speed up chemical reactions which are also known as catalysts.
Explanation:
Enzymes can be described as molecules which act as biological catalysts i.e they are involved in speeding up a chemical reaction. The enzymes do not get used up in a chemical reaction and hence, they can be reused.
Lactase is an enzyme which helps in breaking down the sugar lactose which is commonly found in the milk. If enough lactase is not produced by a person's body, then he/she becomes unable to digest the sugar lactose. Such a condition is known as lactose intolerance.
Ovoviviparous species are distinguished by what trait? Ovoviviparous species are distinguished by what trait? Offspring are nourished via a placenta prior to live birth. Offspring receive nourishment from the male parent. Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk and then hatch from eggs. Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk prior to live birth.
Answer: Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk prior to live birth.
Explanation:
Ovoviviparous species are distinguished from other species like viviparous and oviparous, as offspring resulting from the fertilization of male sex cell and female sex cell because it
- grows in an egg shell, and derives nourishment from Egg's yolk
- are delivered out of their parents (as live birth) when eggs finally hatch inside their bodies
- occurs in very FEW animals like reptiles eg snakes
Answer: Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk prior to live birth.
Explanation: After eggs are retained, they hatch in the female body and released live.
Biologists will use molecular biology to see how closely related a species is to another type of species. In molecular biology, they compare the sequences of genes (homologous or orthologous genes) found in different species. For instance, humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees all have a gene that encodes the hormone insulin. What can one infer about these species sharing the same insulin gene?
The shared insulin gene among different species like humans and chimpanzees suggests these species have evolved from a common ancestor. The concept of phylogenetic systematics and the comparison of genetic sequences helps biologists understand the evolutionary relationships and history of diverse organisms.
When different species such as humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees share a gene that encodes the hormone insulin, it can be inferred that these species have a common ancestor. This is supported by the concept of phylogenetic systematics, which uses shared genetic sequences to construct phylogenetic trees. Homologous or orthologous genes, like the insulin gene, indicate that these species diverged from a shared lineage at some point in evolutionary history.
Biologists use molecular biology to compare the sequences of such genes to determine evolutionary relationships. The shared insulin gene implies that despite the significant evolutionary time that may have passed and the diverse forms these animals have taken, they retain this genetic legacy. Aligning the sequences of these shared genes allows scientists to understand not only the function of these genes but also the evolutionary paths that have led to their current diversity.
It is intriguing to note that a high degree of genetic similarity is found even across vastly different species, suggesting a deep evolutionary connection. For instance, 99% of the genes in humans and mice are orthologous, and 50% of our genes are orthologous with those of yeast, illuminating the long-term history of life on Earth.
The shared insulin gene among humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees indicates a common ancestry, conserved functional roles, and evolutionary relationships, which can be illustrated using phylogenetic trees.
Molecular Biology and Shared Insulin Gene
When biologists find that humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees all have a gene that encodes the hormone insulin, several inferences can be drawn:
Common Ancestry: The presence of the same insulin gene in different species suggests that these species share a common ancestor.Evolutionary Relationships: The sequences of the insulin genes are likely to show similarities, indicating the evolutionary relationship and lineage of these species.Conservation of Function: Since insulin is vital for regulating blood sugar levels, natural selection has conserved the insulin gene across different species due to its essential role in metabolism.Phylogenetic Trees: Scientists can use the sequences of these homologous genes to construct phylogenetic trees, which help illustrate the evolutionary history and divergence of these species over time.Like DNA, RNA is a long string of nucleotides encased in a large molecule. However, there are three aspects of its structure that makes it different from DNA. What are these aspects? (Select all that apply.)You Selected:RNA is a single-stranded molecule.The sugar in each nucleotide of RNA is ribose.RNA’s thymine base is replaced by urcil
Answer:
All of the listed aspects are correct
Explanation:
Deoxyribosenucleic acid and Ribosenucleic acid are the two nucleic acids. They are polymers made up of nucleotide monomers. Both DNA are composed of
sequence of nucleotides but they have three main structural differences. They are:
1. Unlike DNA that has a double-helical structure formed by the hydrogen bonds that link two complementary nucleotide bases, the RNA is a composed of nucleotide sequence in a single shorter strand.
2. In the RNA molecule, one of the components that makes up its building block (nucleotide) is a five-carbon sugar called Ribose. In the DNA molecule, one oxygen atom is deficient in the sugar, hence the sugar in the DNA is called Deoxyribose.
3. Another component of the nucleotide that makes up the RNA and DNA structure are the nitrogenous bases, which are four in number viz: Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and either Thymine or Uracil depending on the nucleic acid. Thymine only occurs in DNA while Uracil only occurs in the RNA molecule.
Which statement, made by a client diagnosed with an anxiety disorder, should trigger the nurse's concern about the client's understanding of the use of defense mechanisms?
Answer:
The correct answer is "When I have a problem, I just deny it until it goes away."
Explanation:
A client suffering from an anxiety disorder tend to not deal with the problems in a healthy way, which will often results in having additional problems. A client stating that "When I have a problem, I just deny it until it goes away" should trigger the nurse's concern about the client's understanding of the use of defense mechanisms. A client with an anxiety disorder will often deny her or his problems in an attempt to avoid feeling more anxiety, however that defense mechanism is not a healthy reaction and should be avoided as much as possible.
Adults with more than a twelve (12)-month history of migraines were assigned randomly in a double-blinded study to receive treatment with experimental drug X (10 or 20 mg/day) or placebo. The primary efficacy measure was the reduction in severity of the migraine attacks. Enrollment was twelve-hundred (1200) subjects. Which of the following best describes the clinical phase of this study
Answer:
Phase III.
Explanation:
Clinical research includes the different steps to test the particular drugs and its use for the medical treatment. Clinical research is divided into four main phases.
The phase III of the clinical research includes the double blinded study and its clinical trial on the patients. This phase determines the drug safety and efficacy. The therapeutic effect of the drug is tested directly in phase III of the clinical trial.
Thus, the answer is phase III.
The study with 1,200 subjects testing the efficacy of a drug for migraines is best described as Phase III. The correct option is B.
Phase III clinical trials typically involve between 1,000 and 3,000 patients and are conducted in double-blind studies across several hospital sites. These trials primarily aim to establish the drug's long-term safety, effectiveness, recommended dosage, and benefits, making them applicable for the given study design with 1,200 subjects analyzing the efficacy of the drug on patients with a history of migraines.Following are the briefly explanation:
Preclinical Phase I: Focuses on testing the drug on animals to assess safety and efficacy, not applicable here.Phase II: Involves a smaller number of patients (usually 100-300) focusing on effectiveness and short-term side effects, thereby not fitting the study with 1,200 subjects.Phase III: Intended for large-scale studies involving several hundred to thousands of patients, to test long-term efficacy and safety, which aligns with the study described in the question.Thus, the study design with 1,200 subjects fits the criteria for Phase III clinical trials.
Complete question:
Adults with more than a twelve (12)-month history of migraines were assigned randomly in a double-blinded study to receive treatment with experimental drug X (10 or 20 mg/day) or placebo. The primary efficacy measure was the reduction in severity of the migraine attacks. Enrollment was twelve-hundred (1200) subjects. Which of the following best describes the clinical phase of this study?
A. Phase II
B. Phase III
C. Preclinical Phase I
Similarities between the DNA of certain bacteria and the DNA of both mitochondria and chloroplasts is evidence that these organelles originated as bacteria_____________-
Answer:
Bacteria Evolution
This process is called Endosymbiosis.
Explanation:
Symbiosis is a relationship in which organisms from two separate species live in a close, dependent relationship. Endosymbiosis (note that endo means within) is a specific type of symbiosis where one organism lives inside the other.
This causes bacteria, mitochondria, and chloroplasts to be similar in size. Bacteria also have DNA and ribosomes similar to those of mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Based on this and other evidence, scientists think host cells and bacteria formed endosymbiotic relationships long ago, when individual host cells took in aerobic (oxygen-using) and photosynthetic bacteria but did not destroy them. Through millions of years of evolution, the aerobic bacteria became mitochondria and the photosynthetic bacteria became chloroplasts.
After an RNA molecule is transcribed from a eukaryotic gene, what is removed and what is spliced together to produce an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence?a) operators; promoters. b) exons; introns. c) silencers; enhancers.
d) introns; exons. e) promoters; operators.
Answer:d)introns; exons
Explanation:Introns are the non-coding portion of the DNA. They do not code for a gene that can be expressed hence the need for them to be removed from the coding genes(Exons). The exons are then joined together after the introns have been removed to create a sequence of amino acids.
When DNA replicates, the resulting DNA molecules are made up of one original strand and one new strand. This is important for the conservation of genetic information. This type of replication is called_____________.
Answer:
This type of replication is called semi-conservative
Explanation:
According to the semi-conservative replication during the replication process each strand is a mold that by the principle of the complementarity of bases forms a new copy of the strand. In other words, each resulting strand is composed of an old and a new strand.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who suffered full-thickness burns. Which statement by the client demonstrates a need for further instruction on the rehabilitation phase of a burn injury?
1. "I should avoid using lotion to prevent infection."
2. "I should perform range-of-motion exercises daily."
3. "I will avoid direct sun exposure for at least 3 months."
4. "I will wear pressure garments to minimize scars."
Answer:
Option (1).
Explanation:
Burns are categorized into the different stages. The full thickness burns is also known as third stage burns that affect the skin badly and require the emergency hospitalization.
The oil layer can be applied on the loose burn area but lotion should be avoided on the severe burns as they cause different allergic reactions and may worse the burn skin. The sun exposure may excessive burns and exercise should be done for the motion of the burn part. The individuals should wear the tight clothes that can minimize the scars on the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 1.
Explanation:
The nurse needs to demonstrate to provide instruction and rehabilitation phase of burn injury as the regarding to the prevention of infection, and exposure to make it severe by exposing or pressurizing the scars and many more. The correct statement would be the first statement as it helps to prevent the infection by touching the burn injury.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 1.
A human forearm, horse’s front leg, bat’s wing, and porpoise’s flipper have similar bone structure. What conclusions can we draw from the similarities in bone structure between these mammals?
1. Since each limb is used for different functions, these species must be unrelated evolutionarily.
2. Since each limb has a different shape, these species must be related evolutionarily.
3. Since each limb shares the same type of bone structure but performs different functions, these structures are the product of adaptive evolution.
4. Since each limb shares the same type of bone structure but performs different functions, these species cannot possibly be related evolutionarily.
Answer:
3. Since each limb shares the same type of bone structure but performs different functions, these structures are the product of adaptive evolution.
Explanation:
Homologous structure can be an organ or bone with similar anatomical features found in different animals. This similar anatomical features found in different animals can serve as an evidence of evolution, though this anatomical features or structures may appear similar, they may not function the same.
Answer:
A. These limbs are homologous structure
Explanation: It is because the bone has the same structure but different type of limbs because it can be different type of species... so yes hope that was very helpful I got it right on my test so yeah
In the 1990s, epidemiologic studies established that women could reduce their risk of bearing a child with neural tube birth defects by increasing their intake of ______.a) vitamin Bb) vitamin Cc) ascorbic acidd) folic acid
Answer:
d) folic acid
Explanation:
Neural tube defects (NTD) are birth defects that occur in some specialized regions such as the brain and spinal cord. They are considered and bethink as a complex disorder because they are caused by combination of environmental and multiple genetic factors. Environmental factors include low folic acid intake, maternal use of certain anticonvulsant medications. etc. On the other hand multiple genetic factors can include spina bifida (an phenomena whereby there is incomplete closing of the spine and membranes surrouning the spinal cord at the initial stage of development of fetus in pregnancy.
During pregnancy, folate requirements increase due to the result of rapidly dividing cells related to fetal growth. It is of great advantage that pregnant woman should increase their folic acid supplements intake to (400-800μg daily) prior to conception, this can help and assist to reduce the risk for neural tube defects in the fetus.
Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT1. lysozyme.2. complement.3. chemotaxis.4. opsonization.5. trapping a bacterium against a rough surface.
The method not used by phagocytes to optimize interaction with microorganisms is lysozyme. Phagocytes employ chemotaxis and opsonization to locate and bind to pathogens, while lysozyme acts to degrade bacterial cell walls post-engulfment.
Explanation:Phagocytes utilize various mechanisms to optimize interactions with microorganisms for the purpose of defending the body against infections. Among the methods they use are chemotaxis, where complement proteins such as C3a and C4a serve as chemoattractants that draw phagocytes to the infected area. Moreover, opsonization enhances the attachment of microbes to phagocytes through antibody molecules like IgG, complement proteins C3b and C4b, and other acute phase proteins, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them.
Phagocytes such as macrophages and neutrophils are capable of intracellular and extracellular killing of microorganisms. When a microbe is engulfed, it is enclosed in a vesicle known as a phagosome, which fuses with a lysozyme-filled lysosome where the pathogen is destroyed. However, lysozyme alone isn't used by phagocytes to optimize interaction with or hold onto microorganisms—it serves rather to degrade peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question of which method is NOT used by phagocytes to optimize interaction with microorganisms is lysozyme. It is involved in the degradation of bacteria, not in the process leading up to phagocytosis.
When natural sources of ionizing radiation become increased because of accidental or deliberate human actions such as mining, they are referred to as _____ sources.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
artificial
enhanced natural
extraterrestrial
manmade
Answer:
Enhanced natural resources
Explanation:
Natural resources are the resources used by the humans for survival present in the environment or provided by the surrounding environment.The natural resources includes the wood, gas, air, water and other substances.
The substances which emits harmful radiations like radium, thorium, uranium are known as radioactive isotopes.
When these ionizing radiation emitting natural substances increases in the environment due to human activities like the particle accelerators, X-rays and other methods which produces these substances then these substances are refereed to as the enhanced natural substances.
Thus, Enhanced natural resources is the correct answer.
Suppose that you conduct an experiment in which you test whether the fertilization envelope forms and polyspermy occurs under the following conditions: Control group: An unfertilized sea urchin egg is left untreated (no Ca2 channel blockers added). Then sperm are added. Experimental group: Ca2 channel blockers are added to an unfertilized sea urchin egg. Then sperm are added.
Answer:
Here is the full question on the experiment:
Experimental prediction: The effect of Ca2+ channel blockers on formation of the fertilization envelope
The role of Ca2+ ions in the formation of the fertilization envelope and blocking polyspermy can be further studied using Ca2+ channel blockers. As their name suggests, Ca2+ channel blockers block the movement of Ca2+ ions through channels. In the case of gated Ca2+ channels, the channel blockers prevent the channels from opening even if the signal to open is present.
Suppose that you conduct an experiment in which you test whether the fertilization envelope forms and polyspermy occurs under the following conditions:
Control group: An unfertilized sea urchin egg is left untreated (no Ca2+ channel blockers added). Then sperm are added.
Experimental group: Ca2+ channel blockers are added to an unfertilized sea urchin egg. Then sperm are added.
Drag the labels (yes or no) to predict whether or not the following events can occur under control conditions and experimental conditions.
Explanation:
The sea urchin fertilization envelope (FE) is formed following initial sperm-egg interaction from the egg surface vitelline envelope (VE) and the paracrystalline protein fraction (PCF), derived from cortical granules.
Polyspermy is the fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm, and the results of such unions are lethal. If multiple sperm fertilize an egg, the embryo inherits multiple paternal centrioles. After successful fertilization of the egg cell, a block to polyspermy has to be established to avoid sterility effects associated with lethal genome imbalance and chromosome segregation defects during zygote and embryo development.
CONDITION 1
When no Ca2+ channel blocker is added:
Can fusion of sperm and egg occur? YES
Can the cytoplasmic Ca2+ concentration increase in response to the fusion of sperm and egg? YES
Can the fertilization envelope form? YES
Can polyspermy occur? NO
CONDITION 2
When a Ca2+ channel blocker is added:
Can fusion of sperm and egg occure? YES
Can the cytoplasmic Ca2+ concentration increase in response to the fusion of sperm and egg? NO
Can the fertilization envelope form? NO
Can polyspermy occur? YES
Marlee has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). As the disease progresses, communication to some of her muscles may slow down, and she could lose some muscle control as a result of the degeneration of the ______
Answer:
Myelin sheath
Explanation:
Multiple sclerosis is a degenerative disease which is caused by the degeneration of the myelin sheath which forms a sheath around the neurons.
As a result of the degeneration of the myelin sheath which increases the speed of the transmission of the impulse, the transmission slows down and the communication of the body part with the brain slows down.
In the given question since the communication of the muscles to the body part has slowed down and muscles control might be lost therefore this is the result of the degeneration of the myelin sheath.
Thus, the Myelin sheath is the correct answer.
Multiple Sclerosis for Marlee will cause the degeneration of the myelin sheath, which will subsequently affect muscle control due to the slowing down of signal transmission from the brain.
Explanation:Marlee has been diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). MS is a progressive disease that affects the nervous system, specifically resulting in the degeneration of the myelin sheath. The myelin sheath is a protective layer that surrounds our nerve fibres and aids in the efficient transmission of electrical signals from the brain to different parts of the body, including muscles. When this layer degenerates, it slows down these signals, eventually leading to loss of muscle control.
In multiple sclerosis (MS), the degeneration of the myelin sheath occurs. The myelin sheath is a protective covering around nerve fibres in the central nervous system. As the disease progresses, the myelin sheath can become damaged, leading to impaired communication and loss of muscle control.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the roles of the President of the United States?
A. head of state
B. chief executive
C. speaker of the House
D. commander in chief of armed forces
Answer:
c.speaker of the house
Explanation:
all those 3 fall under his roles but even if he's in legislative he just chooses ambassadors...
Answer:
C is correct
Explanation:
________ is a process in which mitochondria formed when bacteria taken into a host cell gained nutrients and shelter, and the host cell gained ability to synthesize glucose
Answer:
Endosymbiosis
Explanation:
The endosymbiosis concept explains that the origin of membrane-bound organelles present in the eukaryotes occurred when some prokaryotic organisms started a symbiotic association with another prokaryote. Accordingly, mitochondria evolved when an anaerobic prokaryotic cell acquired aerobic bacteria as a symbiont. The symbiont lived inside the host cell and the host cell could form the process of aerobic cellular respiration. The purple bacteria are supposed to be the endosymbiont involved in the origin of mitochondria.
The process through which mitochondria are formed is called endosymbiosis. It is suggested that a host cell engulfed bacteria, which later evolved into mitochondria. The host cell and bacteria mutually benefited from this arrangement.
Explanation:This process is called endosymbiosis, a key theory in biology that explains how structures such as mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved. The theory suggests that these organelles evolved from bacteria that were engulfed by a host cell. Over time, these bacteria became integrated into the cell and evolved into mitochondria. The host cell provided protection and nutrients to the bacteria, and in return, the bacteria helped the host cell synthesize glucose, an essential molecule for energy storage and transfer.
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Which of the following documents must be given to every patient or patient's caregiver before administration of a vaccine
covered under the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act (NCVIA)?
Answer:
Vaccine Information Statement (VIS)
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the document that must be given in these scenarios is the Vaccine Information Statement (VIS). This is a document made by the CDC that explains all the benefits and risks of a vaccine to vaccine recipients, and is mandatory that this document is provided to every patient or patient's caregiver/legal guardian before administering the vaccine.
Educating the public about the causes of earthquakes and their potential hazards may help to alleviate death and destruction should an earthquake occur, but a country also needs _____ to help prepare for the likelihood of such an event
Answer:
Funds.
Explanation:
Natural disaster may be defined as any harmful event that might occur due to the natural phenomena. The natural disaster might include flood, earthquake, cyclone and volcanoes.
These natural disaster affects the living life as well the public properties. The countries might suffer from the huge financial loss due to these natural disaster. This the duty of the government and the individual to prepare themselves in the disaster and the country must provide funds for the preparation of these disaster.
Thus, the answer is funds.
A person who eats excessively and never seems to feel full may have which of the following conditions? a) Too much insulin b) Tumor in the hypothalamus c) Stomach bypass surgery d) Tumor in the hippocampus e) Too much of the hormone PYY.
Answer:
Tumor in the hypothalamus. (Ans. B)
Explanation:
Hypothalamus is known as the small part of the brain which is situated at the base of the brain. It's very small in structure but plays an important role in the human body such as:
1) Releasing hormones.
2) Body temperature regulation.
3) Managing sexual behavior.
4) Managing daily physiological cycles.
Hunger triggering hormone also released by the hypothalamus which is known as orexin. Tumor in the hypothalamus can trigger the secretion of orexin hormone which makes the person eats excessively and never seems to feel full.
Answer:
B) A tumor in the hypothalamus
Explanation:
Illness characterized by headache, nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, and insomnia. It typically begins 6 to 96 h after one reaches high altitude and lasts several days.
Answer: Acute Mountain Sickness or Altitude sickness.
Explanation:
Acute Mountain sickness results from the inability to adjust to the lowered oxygen pressure of high altitudes. The best thing to do when experiencing symptoms is to descend to lower altitudes and receive oxygen.
The nursing instructor is teaching the students the basics of the labor and delivery process. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which action will best help to prevent infections in their clients?A. Thoroughly wash the hands before and after client contact.B. Replace soiled drapes and linen as needed.C. Clean the woman's perineum with a Betadine scrub.D. Strictly follow universal precautions.
Answer:
A. Thoroughly wash the hands before and after client contact
Explanation:
There are several important techniques that are to be kept in mind to prevent spread of infection during labor and delivery process as this ensures the safety of the child, the mother as well as the healthcare professionals.In a healthcare setting, thorough washing of hands on a routine basis is very important as it acts to control the spread of infection. Keeping the area clean is also important however, this becomes secondary, the primary importance should be given to washing hands before and after the client contact. Once the students choose this action to prevent infections to clients this would indicated the success of the training.Plant growth is affected by environmental factors such as gravity. If a seed is allowed to sprout and grow while it is turned sideways, which will most likely occur?
If a seed is allowed to sprout and grow while it is turned sideways, roots will grow downward, stems will grow upward.
TROPISM:
Tropism refers to the movement of an organism or part of an organism in response to stimuli. Tropism can either be negative or positive. Positive tropism refers to movement in the direction of the stimulus while negative tropism refers to movement away from the direction of the stimulus. In a plant, the stems are known to respond away from gravity i.e. they are negatively geotropic while the roots grow in the direction of gravity i.e. positively geotropic. Therefore, If a seed is allowed to sprout and grow while it is turned sideways, roots will grow downward, stems will grow upward.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/18937505?referrer=searchResults
You are in a lab studying a newly discovered cell type. You observe a rigid cytoskeleton in this cell, along with a nucleus and a compartmentalized interior. How would you classify this cell?
Answer:
It will be classified as a possibly transitional cell from prokaryotic cell to eukaryotic cell.
Explanation:
The above classification was reached based on some facts. The prokaryotes are single cell organism while some eukaryotes are single celled and some are multi celled.
The presence of nucleus and the compartmentalized interior in the cell are characteristics of an eukaryote, and these are lacking in the prokaryote.
The rigid cytoskeleton is found in the prokaryotic cell, and its lacking in the eukaryotic cell.
So , this create the assumption that the cell is possibly transitioning from prokaryotic cell to eukaryotic cell.
Final answer:
The cell observed with a nucleus and a compartmentalized interior, along with a rigid cytoskeleton, is a eukaryotic cell, characterized by its complex internal structure and organelles enclosed by lipid membranes.
Explanation:
Based on the description of the cell with a rigid cytoskeleton, a nucleus, and a compartmentalized interior, would be classified as a eukaryotic cell. Eukaryotic cells are known for their complex structures, which include internal compartments such as the nucleus and other organelles like vacuoles, all of which are enclosed by lipid membranes. Additionally, the presence of a clear cytoskeleton is a defining feature of eukaryotes, providing structural support and facilitating cellular functions such as motility and division.
At what point do you feel it is necessary for environmentalists to get involved in creating man-made problems with natural ecological succession?
Answer: Ecosystem degradation
Definition of terminologies:
1. Natural ecological succession is the gradual change in the species composition and diversity in the ecosystem and the development of ecosystem over a period of time, resulting to stable community.
2. Ecosystem refers to group of plants, animals and other living components functioning in their non-living environment.
3. Ecosystem degradation refers to the depletion of resources in the ecosystem
Explanation:
When there is ecosystem degradation, it is necessary for environmentalists to get involved in creating man-made problems with natural ecological succession and this process is called ecological restoration.
Environmentalists creates man-made problems to either accelerate or reverse the change in the ecosystem.
Degradation comes in different ways (e.g increased soil erosion/flooding, disease outbreak,deforestation, pollution of the ecosystem etc.) and are greatly influenced by climate change.
Environmentalists curb the menace by:
1. Introducing resistant species against disease outbreak;
2. Improved ecosystem service;
3. Buffer zone establishment to resist pollution in any form.
An be inferred from the passage that:_________ a. in an extinction event, there is a dramatic decrease in microbial life on earth. b. over 90% of easily observed, biologically complex species become extinct during a biotic crisis. c. the background extinction rate of animal and plant species is well below 50%. d. marine fossils are easier to find and thus more useful to those studying mass extinction events.
Answer:
C. the background extinction rate of animal and plant species is well below 50%.
Explanation:The Reading Comprehension themed ”An extinction event (also known as a mass extinction or biotic crisis)” was the reference source for the answer.
Option C is correct, it requires that one joins two pieces of information. The start of the 3rd paragraph we see that “the five major mass extinctions have significantly exceeded the background extinction rate” and we later saw that ”the rate of those mass extinctions is over 50%.” This brings one to submit that the background rate of extinction is altogether, below 50%.