Answer:B) request for information
Explanation: Request for information is the gathering of written information about the capabilities of potential supplies for a goods or service.
Which of the following statements about seed plants is true Seeds are produced only by flowering plants (angiosperms) The sporophyte generation is more reduced in seed plants than in the ferns The gametophytes of seed plants are independent of the sporophytes All seed plant species are heterosporous The zygote of seed plants divides repeatedly to form the gametophyte
Answer:
d. All seed plant species are heterosporous.
Explanation:
All the seed plants produce two types of spores. Therefore, seed plants are always heterosporous. The types of spores produced by these plants are microspore and megaspore. Microspore produces male gametophyte and serves to carry the male gametes while the megaspore gives rise to the female gametophyte. When the male gametes of a microspore fertilize a female gamete, the zygote is formed. The fertilized ovule is converted into a seed. Therefore, the formation of two types of spores is required for seed formation.
The accurate statement is that all seed plants are heterosporous, producing two types of spores. Other statements listed are not accurate about seed plants. In seed plants, the sporophyte generation is dominant, while the gametophyte is dependent on it.
Explanation:Among the statements given, the true statement about seed plants is: All seed plant species are heterosporous. Heterosporous means that the plant produces two types of spores: microspores, which will develop into male gametophytes, and megaspores, which will develop into female gametophytes. This is a common attribute of all seed plants.
Contrarily, it's not true that seeds are produced only by flowering plants (angiosperms) as seed formation also happens in gymnosperms. The sporophyte generation is not more reduced in seed plants compared to ferns; in fact, it is dominant and longer-lived. The gametophytes of seed plants are not independent from sporophytes; they are often protected and nourished by the sporophytic tissue. Finally, the zygote of seed plants divides repeatedly to form an embryo, not a gametophyte.
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Openings between _____ cells create pores in the leaf epidermis that play a critical role in photosynthesis by allowing diffusion of atmospheric CO2 into a leaf's interior.
Answer:
Guard
Explanation:
The opening between guard (pores) cells is known as stomata. The stomata helps in diffusion of atmospheric CO2 into leaf's interior and also involved in loss of water by plant leaves through transpiration. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by guard cells.
Guard cells control the opening and closing of stomata by becoming turgid or flaccid because of potassium ions. The water potential decreases by increasing the solute concentration and water always flow from higher potential to lower potential. Remember maximum water potential is zero.
When potassium ions concentration increases inside the guard cells, water follow the potassium ions and guard cells become turgid which cause the opening of stomata. On the other side when the potassium ions concentration decreases inside the guard cells the water leaves the guard cells and guard cells become flaccid causing closing of stomata.
While testing for biological macromolecules in an unknown, you find that it reacts strongly with iodine and the solution immediately turns a very dark black. The macromolecule at hand must be:_________.
Answer: Carbonhydrate (Starch)
Explanation:starch is a polysaccharide ,made up of glucose monomers.starch is an insoluble carbonhydrate.it forms a main storage material for green plants.starch is a made up of two fractions namely; Amylose and amylopectin.
They both contain alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkages but amylopectin also contains branches of alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkages.
Starch gives a blue-black colouration with iodine.This is due to it's reaction with amylose.its structure is helically coiled and hence can trap iodine molecules.
This blue black colour changes on heating because amylose loses its structure on heating
Manatees, aquatic mammals inhabiting Florida’s rivers and coastal waters, swim close to the surface and are frequently killed in collisions with boats. To address the problem, boat traffic in manatee-populated waters is being required to maintain very low speeds. Unfortunately, manatees are unable to hear low-pitched sounds and a boat’s sound lowers in pitch as the boat slows. Therefore, this approach may in fact make things worse rather than better.
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the conclusion?
(A) The areas where boats would have to maintain low speeds were decided partly on the basis of manatee-population estimates and partly from numbers of reported collisions between manatees and boats.
(B) Because the water hyacinth that manatees feed on grows best in water that is nearly still, water hyacinth beds can be disturbed or damaged by fast-moving boat traffic.
(C) Over the last several decades, boat traffic in Florida’s coastal waters has been increasing almost continuously and now represents the greatest threat to the endangered manatee population.
(D) The sound of a boat engine generally travels much further under water than it does through the air.
(E) When experimenters exposed manatees to the recorded sounds of boats moving at various speeds, the creatures were unable to discern the sounds over normal-background noise.
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
In the situation given in the question, it is stated that manatees can not hear low-pitched sounds of the slow boats and therefore this could cause more collisions and deaths.
The answer that can cast doubt on the conclusion, if true, is that the hyacinth that the manatees feed on grows best in water that is still, so it would make sense for the boats the slow down even though the risk of a collision with a manatee increases.
I hope this answer helps.
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. True False
Answer:
The statement is FALSE.
Explanation:
Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells and gives the body's blood red pigment. It is formed by the heme group and a protein group (globin). Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen from the respiratory organs to body tissues.
Final answer:
The statement is false. Hemoglobin is comprised of four globin protein subunits (not the protein heme) and four iron-containing heme groups, which collectively enable it to carry oxygen in the blood.
Explanation:
The statement that hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin is false. Hemoglobin is actually a protein molecule found in red blood cells known for its oxygen-carrying capacity. It is composed of two primary components: four globin polypeptide chains (two alpha and two beta chains) and four heme groups. Each globin chain surrounds a central heme group that contains iron. The iron within the heme groups is what binds oxygen, and it's also responsible for giving blood its red color. Each of the four heme groups in a hemoglobin molecule is capable of binding an oxygen molecule, allowing hemoglobin to transport oxygen efficiently from the lungs to body tissues and carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation.
Normal leukocytes use several protective mechanisms in combating disease-causing microbes such as bacteria. Which of the following is NOT a method related to substance uptake by a white blood cell?
a. exocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. pinocytosis
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
Answer:a; exocytosis
Explanation: leukocytes are blood cells which destroy foreign bodies such as bacteria.they have the ability to engulfing invading microorganisms thus they are said to be involved in defense and immunity.
Leukocytes are capable of engulfing foreign bodies through the processes of pinocytosis, phagocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis.
In endocytosis,the membrane of the cell transfers the foreign bodies into the cell.it does this by first trapping the foreign body to form a vesicle .the vesicle then pinches off on the other side of the membrane.
Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which the material is engulfed into the cell cytoplasm.
Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which droplets of fluids are engulfed into the cell.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis is when specific materials are engulfed due to the protein receptors on the cell membrane.
Exocytosis is the opposite of endocytosis and in this process , materials are removed from the cell by pinching of the cell membrane.
Since white blood cells need to engulf bacteria, exocytosis is not used.
If calcium channels open in the plasma membrane, calcium ions enter the cell. If calcium channels open in the plasma membrane, calcium ions enter the cell. True False
Answer:
its True that it would enter the cell
Final answer:
It is true that calcium ions enter the cell when calcium channels in the plasma membrane open, which is important for cellular communication and responses like muscle contraction and neurotransmitter release.
Explanation:
The statement that calcium ions enter the cell when calcium channels in the plasma membrane open is true. This is a fundamental concept in cellular biology related to how cells communicate and respond to signals. Voltage-gated calcium channels are a type of gated ion channel that opens in response to changes in the cell's membrane potential. When a nerve impulse triggers the opening of these channels, calcium ions (Ca2+) rapidly enter the cell, leading to depolarization of the membrane. This increase in calcium concentration within the cytoplasm is crucial for processes such as muscular contraction and cellular signaling.
For example, the presence of calcium can facilitate the interaction between proteins like synaptotagmin and SNARE proteins, which are critical for the release of neurotransmitters at synapses. Moreover, other types of calcium channels can be activated by different mechanisms, including the binding of specific agonists or changes in electrical charge across the membrane, highlighting the diverse roles of calcium signaling in various cellular functions.
An increase in the amount of ultraviolet light entering the atmosphere through holes in the ozone layer will most likely
cause an increase in the rate of certain mutations
Which pair of events would directly result in a constant number of chromosomes in body cells from one generation to the next in sexually reproducing species?
Answer:
Meiosis and fertilization
Explanation:
The type of cell division that takes place in the sexually reproducing cells in meiosis.
Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintains the ploidy level in the new organism by forming cells with haploid or half the number of chromosomes.
The meiosis produces 4 haploid gamete cells which when fuses or fertilise with the gamete cell of the opposite sex again form a diploid organism. This type of cell division maintains a constant number of chromosomes.
Thus, meiosis and fertilisation are correct.
Microevolution can be said to have taken place when a. a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies. b. a feature of an individual animal changes through use or disuse. c. a mutation occurs in a population. d. several mutations occur in a population. e. when a population has different forms of the same gene.
Explanation:
A genetic draft changes in allele frequencies in a populace from age to age that happens because of chance occasions. To be increasingly accurate, genetic drift is changed because of "examining blunder" in choosing the alleles for the cutting edge from the genetic stock of the present age. Albeit drift occurs in population all things considered, its belongings will, in general, be more grounded in little populationHence, the right answer is option a " a population experience a shift in allele frequencies"
Answer:
a. a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies.Explanation:
Microevolution: Evolutionary change within a species or small group of organisms, mainly over a short period/ in a short duration of period.
Microevolution : taken place when a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies.
Examples of microevolution: Pesticide resistance, antibiotic resistance, herbicide resistance, and many others.
In sweet pea, red flower color is controlled by two genes involved in the anthocyanin pathway, A and B. Both genes are required for expression, so that a recessive pair of alleles at either locus would result in a pink phenotype. If an AaBb plant were allowed to self-cross and you got only red and pink flowers, what dihybrid ratio would you expect in the offspring?
Answer:
The dihybrid ratio we expect in the offspring is 9:7.
Explanation:
This is an example of complementary gene interaction, which is the non allelic interaction or genes, where the prominent genes at heterozygous loci may complement each other by complementing recessive alleles at the respective loci.
So in this case of complementary gene interaction, the individuals that are A-bb or aaB- or aabb will have the same set of observable features (phenotype) but only A-B- individuals will how the dominant phenotype.
When researchers are measuring plant productivity, they usually harvest and measure above-ground biomass. But with grassland plants, it is common to find that most of an individual's biomass is in its root system. Why don't researchers measure below-ground biomass as well?
Answer:
Because of the fibrous root network of grasses.
Explanation:
Measuring below ground biomass of grass plants is technically impossible and difficult because of the fibrous root network different plants form with one another and within the soil. The network virtually makes it impossible to individually extract all the underground biomass of each grass.
Final answer:
Researchers measure above-ground biomass when measuring plant productivity because it is easier to measure and provides a good estimate of the plant's overall biomass. However, grassland plants have a significant portion of their biomass in their root system, which is not measured. Measuring below-ground biomass is challenging due to difficulties in accurately measuring the highly branched and spread out root system.
Explanation:
Researchers usually measure above-ground biomass when measuring plant productivity because it is easier to measure and provides a good estimate of the plant's overall biomass. Above-ground biomass includes the stems, leaves, and flowers of the plant, which are responsible for photosynthesis and the production of resources for other living things. However, it is important to note that in grassland plants, a significant portion of the plant's biomass is in its root system.
Measuring below-ground biomass can be challenging because it is difficult to accurately measure the root system without damaging it. Roots can be highly branched and spread out in the soil, making it hard to capture their full biomass. Additionally, digging up the soil to measure below-ground biomass can disturb the plant and the surrounding ecosystem.
By focusing on above-ground biomass, researchers can still get a good estimate of plant productivity and its contribution to ecosystem functioning and resource availability.
The fungi that produce penicillin, the fungi that we use to make bread, the fungi that we use to brew alcoholic drinks, and the fungi that we eat as truffles, all belong to the group of fungi known as:___________.
Answer:
Yeast
Explanation:
Yeast is an example of fungi. It is helpful in making alcohol as yeast is capable of fermenting sugar solution into alcohol this process is termed as Fermentation. It also helps to bake bread, dosas as it reproduces in flour dough and produces CO2 during respiration, it makes the dough soft and thus helps in the making of bread, idlis, etc.
Hope it helps you
Mutations that affect only the individual in which they occur are called _____ mutations; _____ mutations are passed from parent to offspring.
Answer:
Somatic; Germ line
Explanation:
Somatic mutations are the type of mutations that do not affect offspring or are not passed to the next generation. the occur mostly in the body cells/ somatic cells. Such mutations can be passed to daughter cells during mitosis but can not be passed to offspring via sexual reproduction. Germline mutations occurs in the germ line cells which gives rise to cells that are passed down to offspring. Germline cells gives rise to the sex cells that which are passed to offspring through the process of sexual reproduction involving the egg and the sperm.
Final answer:
Somatic mutations affect only the individual and cannot be passed to offspring, while germline mutations occur in reproductive cells and can be inherited by offspring. Effects of mutations can range from imperceptible to severe, potentially causing genetic diseases like cystic fibrosis or hemophilia if they are germline mutations.
Explanation:
Mutations that affect only the individual in which they occur are called somatic mutations; germline mutations are passed from parent to offspring. Somatic mutations occur in non-reproductive cells and cannot be transmitted to offspring. They may have little effect on the organism because they are confined to just one cell and its daughter cells. On the other hand, germline mutations occur in the sex cells, gametes, such as eggs and sperm. These mutations are heritable and can be passed down to offspring, who will have the mutation in every cell.
Some mutations do not result in any observable traits and are known as silent mutations. However, others, such as point mutations, which affect a single base pair, can have a range from no effect to very serious effects on an individual. Types of point mutations include transitions, transversions, insertions, and deletions. For example, cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and Tay-Sachs disease are diseases caused by specific germline mutations.
Which vessels delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?
i dont really know
:
What is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?
The provided question is incomplete as the options are not provided, however the options are as follows:
A.alternation of generations
B ovules
C. integuments
D. pollen
E. dependent gametophytes
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A. alternation of generation.
Explanation:
Angiosperms and gymnosperms both have alternation gymnosperms however the dominant phase in both are sporophyte. The basic idea of this type of life cycle is stays same.
Plant spores produces the gametes in gametophyte phase of alternation of generation and these gametes form zygote to produce the dominant sporophyte phase of this.
Thus, the correct answer is - a) alternation of generation.
Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the
Final answer:
Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the tragedy of the commons.
Explanation:
Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the tragedy of the commons.
The tragedy of the commons refers to a situation where a shared resource, such as public land, is overused and degraded due to the self-interest of individuals. In this case, each livestock owner wants to graze their animals on the public land without considering the long-term consequences of overgrazing.
This leads to the degradation of the land, loss of natural resources, and threats to the livelihoods of other livestock owners. It is important to implement sustainable management practices to prevent the tragedy of the commons from occurring.
What is the most likely plant response to an attack by herbivores?
The options are:
A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss
B) early flowering to try to reproduce before being eaten
C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators
D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns
Answer:
The correct answer of this question is- C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators
Explanation:
In response to attacks by herbivores, plants produce chemicals that are toxic to the herbivores which can even kill them or some chemicals can spread in the air and can attract the predators of those herbivores that attack that plant species.
Plants produce secondary metabolites that play an important role in protecting the plant from predators because they can be toxic and antimicrobial for example flavonoids, alkaloids, saponins. Plants do not get harmed by these metabolites because they have their own detoxification method. So the correct answer is C.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss
B) early flowering to try and reproduce before being eaten
C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators
D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns
E) production of thicker bark and cuticle to make it more difficult to eat
Answer:
D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns
Explanation:
The plants are autotrophic organism which can produce food on their own therefore they become the producers of the food chain that is they are eaten by the primary consumers.
So to protect themselves the plants adapted to protect themselves and formed the needle-like structures called thorns by modifying their stem. The needle-like structure can injure or harm the herbivore when they try to eat them.
Thus, Option-D is correct.
When cells are going through rapid cell divisions during the first stage of animal development called "cleavage", which of the following phases of the cell cycle are lost? (Choose ALL correct answers) Group of answer choices
Early cleavage divisions in most embryos are also rapid. One reason for this is that cleaving cells have a modified cell cycle, in which the two gap phases, G1 and G2 are completely omitted, and the cells cycle rapidly between M and S phases. In addition, because the major cytoskeletal systems of the cells are largely devoted to mitosis (microtubules) and cytokinesis (microfilaments) during rapid cleavage division, there is typically an antagonism between periods of rapid cell division and cell movement. Thus as the embryo approaches gastrulation, there is a tremendous slowing in the rate of division (note the slope of the curve at the right).
During the cleavage stage of animal development, the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle are lost, allowing rapid cell division by skipping the phases of growth and preparation for DNA replication.
During cleavage, cells divide rapidly without growing in size, which means there is less need for the phases involved in growth and preparation for DNA synthesis or the checking of completed DNA synthesis and preparation for mitosis. Instead, the cell cycle is shortened to include just the S phase (Synthesis of DNA) and M phase (Mitosis), enabling a faster rate of cell division necessary for early embryonic development.
The complete question is:
When cells are going through rapid cell divisions during the first stage of animal development called "cleavage", which of the following phases of the cell cycle are lost? (Choose ALL correct answers) Group of answer choices
A. G2
B. S
C. M
D. G1
Whichecological roles is/are played by at least some fungi?
Answer:
Predation, decomposition
Explanation:
Fungi is very much important for the environment and play an important role in balancing the environment because they play many ecological roles. All fungi are heterotrophs so they depend on others to get their food.
One of the most important roles played by fungi is of decomposers. Most of the fungi are saprophytes and they get their nutrition from dead and decaying organic matter. So by doing this, they help in nutrient cycle and bioremediation.
Some fungi also play the ecological role of predators and prey on amoebas, roundworms, and rotifers, animals, etc. Therefore correct answer is predation and decomposition
In trying to determine whether dna or protein is the genetic material, what are the things that differs between the two?
Answer/Explanation:
Genetic material is essential for the growth and reproduction of an organism and the continuity of life. If an organism cannot pass on the required instructions in order to make a copy of itself, it cannot continue to reproduce.
Think of DNA like a set of instructions. This DNA is transcribed (copied) to a message (RNA) that is then translated to a functional output (proteins). The proteins are what carries out all the essential functions in the cell. However, without DNA, the cell/organism would not have the necessary information in order to make the proteins.
The sequence of the DNA is what determines the sequence of the polypeptide chains that make proteins. These proteins carry out essential tasks in the cell, including catalysing reactions, signalling, performing structural tasks, and many more.
The DNA is also what is passed on to the next generation via cell division, in the formation of chromosomes. Chromosomes provide the daughter cells with the information to continue carrying out the functions necessary for survival via DNA encoding proteins.
Which of the following is true about top predators? Select one: a. They include bacteria and fungi. b. Their removal increases biodiversity. c. They are likely to be herbivores. d. They are often keystone species. e. They are likely to be producers.
Answer:
d. They are often keystone species
Explanation:
Top predators in an environment are the largest predators and sits on the top (apex) of the food chain in an ecosystem which do not have any natural predators.
As the top predators relative to its abundance has disproportionately large effect on its natural environment, they are the keystone species most of the time.
Hence option d. They are often keystone species is the right option.
Predators are often keystone species. Therefore, the correct option is D.
The highest trophic level in an ecosystem is occupied by apex predators, also known as apex predators. They differ from other species in that they have few or no natural predators. Keystone species are those that, with respect to their abundance, have the greatest impact on their ecosystem. Because of the potential ripple effects their existence and actions can have on entire ecosystems, apex predators often serve as flagship species. Their eradication could severely alter the population dynamics of other species and upset the balance of entire food webs.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Mrs. Wade has type O blood, and her mother has type B blood. Her mother stated that her father has type AB blood. What is the chance that he is her father?
Answer: The chance of he being her father is 0.
Explanation:
The mother with blood type B,
The father with blood type AB,
Mrs Wade the offspring with blood type O.
Possible genotypes for both parents:
Mother is BB or BO,
Father is AB.
Since the offspring is having blood type O, we consider a cross between BO of mother and AB of father.
Mother father
Parents gametes: BO x. AB
Offsprings. AB, AB, AO, BO.
From the cross the genotypes that are possible of carrying O are AO and BO but this cannot be used to say that the baby will have blood type O because the O present in AO and BO is recessive gene.
Also, for the baby to have blood type O, she must have gotten one allele from each parent to have a genotype OO which is not so in this case.
Therefore, the chance that he is her father is 0.
Which of the following happens when a cell divides? Select one: a. The cell's volume increases. b. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients. c. The cell has DNA overload. d. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell's DNA.
Explanation:
During mitosis repeated chromosomes are positioned close to the center of the cytoplasm and then isolated so every girl cell gets a duplicate of the first DNA (in the event that you start with 46 in the parent cell, you should wind up with 46 chromosomes in every little girl cell). To do this cells use microtubules (alluded to as the axle mechanical assembly) to "pull" chromosomes into every "cell". The microtubules have the 9+2 game plan examined before Animal cells (with the exception of a gathering of worms known as nematodes) have a centriole. Plants and most other eukaryotic living beings need centrioles. Prokaryotes, obviously, need shafts and centrioles; the phone layer expects this capacity when it pulls the by-then recreated chromosomes separated during parallel splittingCells that contain centrioles additionally have a progression of littler microtubules, the aster, that stretch out from the centrioles to the cell film. The aster is thought to fill in as a prop for the working of the axle strandsHence, the right answer is option "d"You are studying a bacterium that utilizes a sugar called athelose. This sugar can be used as an energy source when necessary. Metabolism of athelose is controlled by the ath operon. The genes of the ath operon code for the enzymes necessary to use athelose as an energy source. You have found the following: The genes of the ath operon are expressed only when the concentration of athelose in the bacterium is high. When glucose is absent, the bacterium needs to metabolize athelose as an energy source as much as possible. The same catabolite activator protein (CAP) involved with the lac operon interacts with the ath operon. Based on this information, how is the ath operon most likely controlled?
Answer:
The ath operon is most likely controlled by the CAP and a repressor similar to the lac operon.
Explanation:
The CAP senses the low concentration of glucose and activates the transcription of the ath operon for it to metabolize the athelose and obtain energy. When the glucose is in high concentrations, the ath repressor, which works as a lac repressor, inhibits the transcription of the ath operon, it does this by binding to a part of the operon called operator getting in the ARN polymerase way and stoping the transcription. If there is glucose, the repressor binds to it and it is not bound to the operon allowing the transcription and metabolism of glucose.
Answer: The control of an ATH OPERON has both negative and positive sides,they are as follows;
POSITIVE CONTROL OF AN ATH OPERON IS BY;
- Inactive activator ( not glowing w/o yellow square)
- Catabolite activator protein (cAMP)
- Active activator ( glowing w/ yellow square)
NEGATIVE CONTROL OF AN ATH OPERON IS BY;
- Active repressor( glowing w/o yellow square)
- athelose
- Inactive repressor ( not glowing w/ yellow square)
Explanation: The OPERON MODEL describes how bacteria controls the production of groups of enzymes.In operon model, synthesis of the RNA messenger coding for these enzymes is switched on or off by regulatory proteins.
Regulatory proteins bind to the operator to control expression of the operon while a repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription,in prokaryotes this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.
Having an insufficient daily diet is called __________. A. agriculture B. supply and demand C. production D. malnourishment Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Having an insufficient daily diet is called malnourishment.
What do you mean by malnourishment?Malnutrition, in all its forms, includes undernutrition (wasting, stunting, underweight), inadequate vitamins or minerals, overweight, obesity, and resulting diet-related noncommunicable diseases.
Moreover, there are two major types of malnutrition: Protein-energy malnutrition - resulting from deficiencies in any or all nutrients. Micronutrient deficiency diseases - resulting from a deficiency of specific micronutrients.
Therefore, common signs of malnutrition include: unintentional weight loss – losing 5% to 10% or more of weight over 3 to 6 months is one of the main signs of malnutrition. a low body weight – people with a body mass index (BMI) under 18.5 are at risk of being malnourished (use the BMI calculator to work out your BMI).
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What are the functions of the lymphatic system?
Answer:
The lymphatic system returns leaked fluids to blood vessels.
Explanation:
That's the answer on edge
Blood passes from the external iliac vein into what vessel?
Answer:
Inferior vena cava.
Explanation:
Blood flows from the external iliac vein into the inferior vena cava. it joins to the iliac vein to form the inferior vena cava.
Answer: inferior vena cava
Explanation: The internal iliac vein drains blood from the visceral organs in the pelvic region. The external iliac connects to the femoral veins. The internal iliac vein may double or lay lateral to the external iliac vein. Both veins join together to form the inferior vena cava.
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What role does light energy from the sun serve in photosynthesis?
A
energizes electrons
B
splits carbon dioxide
C
splits water molecules
Answer:
B) splits carbon dioxide( mark me brainlest!)
Explanation:
In a nut shell , the light energy from the sun is converted into Chemical energy by the plants through the process of photosynthesis. The green pigment chlorophyll present in the leaves traps light energy from the sun . This light energy is used to convert water and carbon-dioxide into Glucose and Oxygen.
Final answer:
Light energy from the sun excites electrons in chlorophyll during photosynthesis and splits water molecules to replenish those electrons, playing a crucial role in converting sunlight into chemical energy.
Explanation:
The role of light energy from the sun in photosynthesis is multifaceted. Primarily, it serves to energize electrons within the chlorophyll molecules found in the photosystems. When chlorophyll absorbs light energy, the electrons become excited and jump to a higher energy level. These high-energy electrons are then passed on to the primary electron acceptor in the photosystem. Furthermore, light energy is also integral in the splitting of water molecules (H2O) into oxygen, hydrogen ions, and electrons during the process known as photolysis. This splitting is crucial as it replenishes the electrons that were excited and transferred from the chlorophyll molecules. The light-driven reactions of photosynthesis essentially initiate the conversion of sunlight energy into chemical energy, setting the stage for the synthesis of sugars in the following stages of photosynthesis.
Environmental sustainability is the responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources. If we exploit natural resources or pollute and degrade the environment without allowing the environment an opportunity to replenish itself, future generations will be unable to meet their needs. By adopting a sustainable, green lifestyle, you become aware of the impact of your choices in food, products, and energy use on future generations. To support a sustainable lifestyle, a consumer must make certain decisions before the purchase any products. What questions should you ask yourself before buying if you have chosen a sustainable, green lifestyle? A) A, C, D, E B) C, D, E, F Eliminate C) A, C, D, E, F D) All are appropriate questions to ask.
Answer:
(C) A, C, D, E, F
Explanation:
USA Test Prep
Before making any purchase in line with a sustainable, green lifestyle, it's crucial to consider the product's durability, recyclability, potential for toxicity, and the ethics of its manufacturing process. All aspects that contribute to the product's environmental impact should be assessed to ensure the conservation of resources for future generations. Hence, all questions provided regarding sustainability are pertinent.
Adopting a sustainable, green lifestyle requires us to make conscious decisions before making any purchase to ensure we do not deplete or degrade the environment for future generations. When planning to buy products, you should ask yourself whether the product is durable, has low potential exposure to toxic substances, comes with minimal and recyclable packaging, and is reusable, repairable, and capable of being remanufactured. This aligns with adopting a sustainable ethic, which involves treating the earth's resources as finite and conserving them in a manner that allows their continued use in the future.
Moreover, considering the product's life cycle, including the availability of repair parts and the infrastructure for recycling materials such as lithium in batteries, is crucial. Supporting companies that practice eco-friendly packaging and recycling, as well as advocating for governmental practices that enforce sustainability, can also contribute to maintaining environmental health. Thus, all questions related to a product's sustainability, durability, potential for toxicity, reuse, repairability, recyclability, and the ethics of its manufacturing process are appropriate to consider before making a purchase, indicating that option D) All are appropriate questions to ask would be the correct choice.