Answer:
Social Change Philosophy
Explanation:
A social change philosophy involves employing measures and strategies that focus on bringing about a change or alteration in a social pattern, behavior and cultural norms in a society.
The approach of developing coalitions in a health education program to advocate for a smoke-free bar and restaurant ordinance as values or norms proposed for the good of the society, can be said to be based on the social change philosophy.
Dr. Singh believes that a basic psychosocial conflict, which is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative, determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Dr. Singh’s beliefs are aligned with those of which theorist?
A) G. Stanley HallB) Sigmund FreudC) Erik EriksonD) B. F. Skinner
Dr. Singh's beliefs that a basic psychosocial conflict determines outcomes at each stage of development align with those of Erik Erikson. Erikson's psychosocial theory of development emphasizes the social nature of our development and the resolution of stage-specific conflicts throughout the lifespan.
Explanation:Dr. Singh's beliefs align closely with those of Erik Erikson, a theorist known for his psychosocial theory of development. Unlike Sigmund Freud, who believed personality is mostly developed in early childhood focusing on psychosexual stages, Erikson proposed that personality development continues throughout the lifespan, emphasizing the social nature of our development. Erikson identified eight stages of development, each characterized by a distinct conflict or task that contributes to a healthy or maladaptive outcome, depending on how well the conflict is resolved.
Erik Erikson was the theorist aligned with the belief that a basic psychosocial conflict determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Erikson's psychosocial theory emphasizes social relationships and the resolution of developmental tasks at different stages of life. He identified eight stages, each with a unique conflict or task that contributes to personality development.
Erikson's theory underscores the importance of social relationships and the resolution of conflicts across the entire lifespan, with each stage offering a unique developmental task crucial for the individual's growth. This approach marks a significant departure from Freud's, placing a greater emphasis on psychosocial rather than psychosexual aspects of development.
Combat veterans may be diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). You wonder about the best way to treat PTSD. This is an example of getting research ideas from ____.
Explanation:
practical problems
During wind sprints for field hockey practice, Sarah noticed that her face felt very hot and looked red. Of the choices below, which would be considered the receptor(s) for thehomeostatic response to Sarah's running?A) Sarah's lungsB) Sarah's skeletal muscles and blood vesselsC) Sarah's cardiac muscleD) Sarah's brain
Answer:
Sarah's skeletal muscles and blood vessels.
Explanation:
Homeostasis may be defined as the process of maintaining the internal environment irrespective of the change in the external or internal environment of the body.
The receptors detect the changes in the environment. During running, the individual sweats and the flow of blood increase in the body. The receptors that might located to detect this change is located in the blood vessels and in the skeletal muscles.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
The client explains to her new provider that she receives periodic phlebotomies to decrease her red blood cell mass. The provider believes the client may have:________.
Answer:
Polycythemia vera
Explanation:
A absolute increase in total red blood cell mass is characterized by primary polycythemia, or polycythemia vera. Treatment aim is to reduce the viscosity of the blood. That can be done by removing blood by periodic phlebotomy to reduce the volume of red blood cells. Transfusions are used to treat sickle cells and beta-thalassemias. Megaloblastic anemias, caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folic acid, are treated by replacing those nutrients.
Cipro-floxacin (Cipro) is a quinolone, which acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase. Which of the following statements about cipro-floxacin is true?A) It should not be used in children.B) Ciprofloxacin is teratogenic and is not approved for pregnant women or children. C) Antacids and other agents that contain divalent minerals can prevent cipro-floxacin from being absorbed.D) First generation quinolones have little efficacy against the gram-positive organisms that cause community-acquired pneumonia.
Answer:B). Ciprofloxacin is teratogenic and is not approved for pregnant women of children.
Explanation: This is because Ciprofloxacin is a Class C drug, I.e Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
It means that unless under certain circumstances where the potential benefits have been weighed to be more than the potential risks, the drug should not be used for pregnant women.
It has also been reported to be passed to the child from the mother during breastfeeding and may cause serious adverse risk including articular damage.
Ciprofloxacin is only approved for use in children for only two indications due to the risk of permanent injury to the musculoskeletal system. These two indications are:
• inhalational anthrax
• Complicated urinary tract infections.
I hope you found this useful.
Kendra is researching the effects of vitamin C on test-taking ability. Before the exam, Kendra gives group A orange juice, and group B water. Vitamin C is the ______.
Kendra is researching the effects of vitamin C on test-taking ability. Before the exam, Kendra gives group A orange juice, and group B water.Vitamin C is the independent variable in Kendra's research.
In Kendra's study, she is investigating the effects of vitamin C on test-taking ability. To conduct a controlled experiment, she needs to manipulate one variable while keeping others constant. In this case, the variable being manipulated is vitamin C. She administers vitamin C through orange juice to one group (group A) and withholds it by giving water to the other group (group B). The independent variable, in this context, is the one that the researcher deliberately changes to observe its effects on the dependent variable, which is likely the test-taking ability in this case. By giving group A orange juice (containing vitamin C) and group B water (lacking vitamin C), Kendra is isolating the influence of vitamin C on the test-taking abilities of the two groups, allowing her to draw conclusions about the impact of vitamin C on this particular aspect of performance.
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A child undergoing drug treatment develops hyperthermia, acidosis, and respiratory depression. What type of drug would be responsible for the condition?
Answer:
It could be cocaine, MDMA, amphetamine...
Explanation:
Those are the drugs that can cause life threatening conditions, sometimes even death.
It mainly causes hyperthermia.
Some of the symptoms: very high temperature, which can damage brain pretty badly, other organs, too.
Other symptoms: muscle cramps, dizziness, headache, vomiting, feeling weak in general.
Heart rate is very high and redness of the skin might appear.
___________ term that is synonymous with foreign animal disease, it describes a disease that is not currently found in the country but found in other places in the world
Answer: Exotic disease
Explanation: Exotic disease is a term used to describe infectious disease which are currently absent in a particular country but present in some other countries in the world. An exotic disease could result either due to the fact that such disease has never surfaced in the country or it has been completely eradicated through through quarantine or any other eradication scheme.
For Instance, pseudorabies is an exotic disease in Denmark because it has been eradicated in the country, while it isn't in Ireland.
a nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo allograft transplatation of the liver which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the post transplant medications?
Answer:
This question comes related to the following options:
a."Immunosuppressants help reduce the risk of postoperative infection."
b."I will need to have periodic laboratory work to assess for toxicity."
c."I will need to take immunosuppressants until all signs of organ rejection are gone."
d."These drugs will prevent organ rejection."
Allograft transplantation or Allotransplantation is a medical procedure to provide (in this case) an organ to a recipient from a donor who is not identical genetically speaking or with a different genotype, which requires very specific considerations when it comes to prevent toxicity or organ rejection, and this requires the patient's immunosuppressants levels to be periodically checked permanently to minimize risks.
Thereby the best answer would be b.)
Because Keza is a college student, people expect her to spend a lot of time studying. The expectation that college students should study a lot is a ______.
College students face high academic expectations regarding studying time and achievement.
Explanation:High academic expectations are a social norm associated with college students. These expectations include dedicating ample time to studying, completing coursework, and graduating successfully. Students are also expected to exhibit self-discipline and focus on their educational goals.
What type of prevention seeks to minimize the severity of the illness or the damage due to an injury-causing event once the event has occurred?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Answer: B) Secondary prevention
Explanation: how this helps you
Answer:
Secondary prevention
Explanation:
Secondary prevention is the prevention that tries to stop the undertaking and hopefully put an end to a disease before it develops fully.
A research study examined the intellectual growth of 20 premature children over a period of 18 years. This is best described as an example of ________.1. Naturalistic observation
2. A longitudinal study
3. A case study
4. A cross-sectional study
Answer: 2). A Longitudinal study
Explanation:
Longitudinal Study or research is a type of observational research (study) in which specific subjects (variables) are observed and data is gathered on them over a period of time. In this case, the subjects being observed are the premature children, the data collected on them are their intellectual growth and this research was carried out over the period of Eighteen (18) years.
Which characteristics must be identified in the child’s behavior before central nervous system stimulants are indicated? Select all that apply.
__ Lack of ability to control impulses
__ Symptoms lasting at least 6 months
__ Short attention span for the child's age
Answer:
The complete question would be A 6-year-old patient is being evaluated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which characteristics must be identified in the child's behavior before the central nervous system stimulants are indicated? Select all that apply.
All the options apply.
Explanation:
A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has short attention spam, one of the reasons for this is due to the lack of control over impulses. They act according to these impulses and do not care for the consequences. The symptoms can last a minimum of six months or more.
An activity that takes place during the early phases of pathogenesis and includes activities that limit the progression of disease is_______.
Answer: secondary prevention of disease
Explanation: avoiding diseases before they begin at the secondary level includes all measures, activities, that are carried out by oneself or a health professional that leads to early detection, diagnosis and prevention of disease to avert more serious problems.
Dr. Levy's research showed that a dose of 200 mg of experimental Drug R had a minimal effect in reducing the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). He then revised the study's hypothesis by increasing the dosage to 300 mg. In this context, reduction of GAD symptoms is the:
Answer:
In this context, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable.
Explanation:
In this experiment, drug R dose is the independent variable and the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. The increase in drug dose is negatively associated with decrease in GAD symptoms. At 200 mg Drug R dose had a minimal effect on GAD symptoms. However, increase in drug dose to 300 mg had a marked decrease in GAD symptoms making the independent and dependent variable inversely proportional.
In this case, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. It is the outcome of interest that Dr. Levy is studying the effects of different dosages of experimental Drug R on.
Explanation:In the given context, the reduction of GAD (generalized anxiety disorder) symptoms is considered as the dependent variable. In research, the dependent variable is the outcome that a researcher is trying to explain or predict, which in this case is the effect of dosage of Drug R on reducing GAD symptoms. The dosage of experimental Drug R is the independent variable as this is manipulated by Dr. Levy in his study. By increasing the dosage from 200 mg to 300 mg, Dr. Levy is testing if this change will have an improved effect on reducing GAD symptoms.
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The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the just noticeable threshold. True or False
The just noticeable threshold is the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person.
Explanation:The statement is True. The just noticeable threshold refers to the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person. This threshold varies for each sense. For example, in vision, the threshold is the minimum amount of light needed to perceive a visual stimulus. In hearing, it is the minimum sound intensity required to detect a sound.
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While it is known for a role in balance and coordination, the _____ is also very important for certain types of learning and conditioning.
Answer:
Cerebellum.
Explanation:
It is a part of the brain that at the back of the skull.One of it' s major function is to regulate the motor functions as it receives information from the sensory system, the spinal cord,and various other parts of the brain.Fifty percent of the neurons found in the brain is found in Cerebellum and it also consists cortex covering white matter and it also contains ventricle filled with fluids.Like the cerebral cortex it is also divided into two hemisphere.The cerebellum is crucial not only for balance and coordination, but also for certain types of learning and conditioning, including classical conditioning and motor learning.
Explanation:The part of the brain in question is the cerebellum. Aside from its primary role in aiding balance and coordination, the cerebellum also plays an integral role in certain kinds of learning and conditioning. For example, classical conditioning which involves learning to associate one stimulus with another and motor learning, which involves learning to perform physical tasks, are both supported by the cerebellum.
It plays a crucial role in maintaining balance, fine-tuning muscle movements, and ensuring smooth and coordinated motor function throughout the body.
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Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average range of motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?
A. Lumbar rotation.B. Elbow extension.C. Subtalar inversion.D. Hip extension.
Answer:
The correct option is B: Elbow extension
Explanation:
The elbow is a very complex joint in the human body and it comprises of the proximal radioulnar, the humeroradial, and the humeroulnar; three entirely different articulations. The elbow is most times subjected to a great deal of weighty loads and thus must have the potential perform certain functions. The elbow's range of motion start approximately at 0 degrees of extension and 140 degrees of flexion in healthy adults.
The health care provider has given and signed an order for a specific client for zolpidem, 10 mg by mouth once daily at hour of sleep, and recorded the specific date and time of the order. What is the appropriate nursing action?
Answer:
Administer the drug.
Explanation:
The nurse is expected to administer the drug through the mouth and it should be as stated by the health care provider which is 10 mg daily at hour of sleep. The nurse is also expected to ensure that the patient takes the medication. This is necessary in order to ensure compliance and prevent further deterioration of the patient's condition.
Amanda's menstrual period is two weeks late. She has been feeling tired and has had bouts of nausea in the morning. What classification of pregnancy symptoms is Amanda experiencing?
Answer: Presumptive
Explanation:
Presumptive signs of pregnancy refers to those signs and symptoms experienced by the patient and impels her to seek the counsel of a physician or make an appointment with a physician. The signs and symptoms are mostly not proof of pregnancy. Some signs include; Cessation of menstruation (Amenorrhea), Nausea and vomiting (morning sickness) Etc.
A client has a disorder that is known to affect the structure and function of the transcription factors. What is the most likely implication of this client's health status?
Humoral control of blood flow involves the effect of vasodilator and vasoconstrictor substances in the blood. Select the factor that has a powerful vasodilator effect on arterioles and increases capillary permeability.
Answer:
Histamine.
Explanation:
Histamine is the factor that increases the capillary permeability and has a vasodilator effect on arterioles. Histamine is generally in mast cells and in a type of white blood cells. It increases the permeability and vasodilates arterioles so that proteins and white blood cells that are in the blood can fight pathogens in a tissue.
A pregnant woman at her first prenatal visit asks the nurse if it is safe to have sex during her pregnancy. Which client statement alerts the nurse to the need for further teaching?
Answer:
Can you put the choices?
Explanation:
Carlos is a pitcher in baseball. He experienced some nerve damage that has caused him to lose some muscle control in his pitching arm. The nerves that were damaged are likely to be neurons that use _____ to control movement in those muscles.
The correct answer would be, Axons.
Carlos is a pitcher in baseball. He experienced some nerve damage that has caused him to lose some muscle control in his pitching arm. The nerves that were damaged are likely to be neurons that use axons to control movement in those muscles.
Explanation:
Brain is a complex structure that consists of nervous system which contains neurons to bring out different activities of the body by sending electrical impulses through a nerve fiber, a projection of a nerve cell, or neurons, called as Axons.
Axons are contained in the Motor neurons and these motor neurons are the most largest neurons in the central nervous system. These motor neurons that contain axons are responsible for bodily movements. So when the pitching arm of Carlos is not working, it means his motor neurons and axons are damaged which are causing problems in the movement of the arm.
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Volleyball helps people reach their fitness goals by __________.
a. using team work to win.
b. improving balance and agility.
c. improving spiritual health.
d. encouraging competition.
Answer:b
Explanation:
The eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome outbreak resembled an illness with similar symptoms that affected some 20,000 people in Spain as a result of what household item being contaminated?
Answer:
Cooking Oil (rapeseed oil)
Explanation:
The eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome (EMS) is a condition of health which resulted in an increased amount of the eosinophil and muscle pain called myalgia.
The symptoms resembled with the symptoms of a disease which outbreak in Spain in 1981 which affected about 20,000 people called toxic oil syndrome.
The toxic oil syndrome was caused because of the intake of the denatured rapeseed soil which was not meant to be consumed usually but made to be consumed by adding aniline to the oil. Consumption of rapeseed oil with aniline caused intoxication and other symptoms like increased eosinophils.
Thus, Cooking Oil (rapeseed oil) is the correct answer.
A client has recently been diagnosed with cancer. The client says, "What did I do wrong to get such a disease?" Which nonverbal processes, along with the client's statement, would convey a congruent message? Select all that apply.
a) A sad facial expression
b) An erect, confident posture
c) A cheerful expression
d) A fearful tone of voice
e) A sarcastic tone of voice
Answer:
A. a sad facial expression
A newly admitted client describes symptoms of dizziness and feeling faint on standing. The client has a history of type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and bipolar disorder. Which medications may be contributing to the client's symptoms?
Answer:
Metoprolol
olanzapine
Explanation:
Metropolol is a generic drug used in the treatment and prevention of heart attacks. It is a beta-blocker and thus are used in the treatment of coronary artery disease. They are also used as a combination therapy and can be combined with with olanzapine, a drug used in the treatment of certain mental conditions such as bipolar disorders and schizophrenia. The side effects of these drugs include; low blood pressure while standing, thus leading to dizziness, drowsiness, weakness, tiredness to mention but a few.
After teaching a woman who has had an evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole or molar pregnancy) about her condition, which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful
Answer:
The options for this question are:
A. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."
B. "My intake of iron will have to be closely monitored for 6 months."
C. "My blood pressure will continue to be increased for about 6 more months."
D. "I won't use my birth control pills for at least a year or two."
The correct answer is A. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."
Explanation:
She needs to have follow-ups for 1 year to see that there isn't any trophoblastic tissue that can grow and harm her. To check this, her hCG levels will be measured for a year, pregnancy modifies the levels of this hormone, so it is important to avoid getting pregnant for a year.
The woman understands the nurse's teaching if she acknowledges the need for regular hCG monitoring post-evacuation, the importance of avoiding pregnancy for a certain period, and recognizes the differences between normal implantation processes and gestational trophoblastic disease.
Explanation:A successful indication that the nurse's teaching was understood by the woman who experienced a molar pregnancy would be her acknowledgment and understanding of the importance of careful monitoring following the evacuation procedure. For instance, she should be aware that her human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will need to be checked regularly since persistently high levels can indicate the need for further treatment. She should also recognize the need to avoid pregnancy for a recommended time to ensure complete recovery and monitoring for any signs of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) recurrence.
Additionally, her understanding should include knowledge about the process of implantation and its importance in establishing a normal pregnancy, distinguishing it from the abnormal growth patterns seen in hydatidiform moles. Recognizing the normal signs of a successful pregnancy, such as positive at-home urine pregnancy tests due to appropriate levels of hCG, contrasts with the abnormal situation previously experienced.
imagine that an organization utilizes a physical ability test as part of its selection process for a particular jon and that significantly more men pass the test than women__________________.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
Imagine that an organization utilizes a physical ability test as part of its selection process for a particular job, and that significantly more men pass the test than women. Based on the test, the organization ends up hiring nearly three times as many men as women. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to this situation?
Answer:
The physical ability test may be defined as the different tasks that are done in the clinical environment to multiply the physical demand. This is mainly done to known the capability of the employee.
The job in which men pass the tests than women represent the discrete impact. The discrete impact might or might not be able to include the illegal discrimination. This discrimination is involved in the E.E.O. law of U.S. and depends on the type of job.
Answer:
d. This is an example of disparate impact and may or may not constitute illegal discrimination under U.S. EEO law depending on the job requirements.
Explanation:
Imagine that an organization utilizes a physical ability test as part of its selection process for a particular job, and that significantly more men pass the test than women. Based on the test, the organization ends up hiring nearly three times as many men as women. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to this situation?
a. This is an example of disparate treatment and is definitely an illegal violation of U.S. EEO law.
b. This is an example of disparate impact and is definitely an illegal violation of U.S. EEO law.
c. This is an example of disparate treatment but does not violate any U.S. EEO laws.
d. This is an example of disparate impact and may or may not constitute illegal discrimination under U.S. EEO law depending on the job requirements.