b. The one on the right
They will be inside the circle.
Explanation:
Phenylalnine is an aromatic amino acid which is hydrophobic in nature.
It tends to get buried in the core of protein structure.
These phenylalanine residues isomerise to the favoured N and C terminus.
The phenylalanine residues will be inside the circle because they are hydrophobic in nature.
These residues will fold the one on the right, clockwise in the domain.
Final answer:
The correct answer is a. The one on the left
To determine which orientation of the folding domain is more likely and whether the side chains would be inside or outside a circle, we need to consider the hydrophobic interactions and steric hindrance.
Explanation:
In protein folding, hydrophobic residues tend to be buried in the interior of the protein to avoid contact with the surrounding aqueous environment, while hydrophilic residues tend to be exposed on the protein's surface. Phenylalanine (F) is a hydrophobic amino acid.
Given that there are 5 phenylalanine residues in the primary structure, the folding domain is likely to fold in a manner that maximizes the burial of these hydrophobic residues in the protein's interior. Therefore, the folding orientation that brings the phenylalanine residues closer together, allowing them to interact and form hydrophobic contacts, would be more favorable.
Looking at the two orientations provided:
The orientation on the left brings the phenylalanine residues closer together compared to the orientation on the right. In the left orientation, the phenylalanine residues are clustered together more tightly, facilitating stronger hydrophobic interactions.
In the left orientation, all the side chains would be inside a circle, as they are brought together in the interior of the protein to maximize hydrophobic interactions.
Therefore, the orientation on the left is more likely, and all the side chains would be inside a circle in this orientation.
So, the correct answer is a. The one on the left
gas exchange in cells is an example of
a.) infusion
b.)diffusion
c.)mitosis
Answer:
b.) diffusion
Explanation:
Gas exchange is occur through the diffusion across the surface.
Diffusion:
It is a process in which gas exchange is occur through the concentration gradient. Gas molecules are moves from region of high concentration to the region of lower concentration.
Example:
In blood the concentration of oxygen is low and carbon dioxide is high while the air in lungs is high in oxygen concentration and low in carbon dioxide concentration. This concentration gradient leads to the exchange of gases in respiration. During respiration oxygen gas is intake while carbon dioxide is released.
Hair color is determined in Labrador retrievers by alleles at the B and E loci. A dominant allele B encodes black pigment, whereas a recessive allele b encodes brown pigment. Alleles at a second locus affect the deposition of the pigment in the shaft of the hair; dominant allele E allows dark pigment (black or brown) to be deposited, whereas recessive allele e prevents the deposition of dark pigment, causing the hair to be yellow. A black female Labrador retriever was mated with a yellow male. Half of the puppies were black and half were yellow. If the genotype of the black female parent was Bb Ee, then what was the genotype of the other parent?
a) bb EE
b) BB EE
c) Bb ee
d) BB ee
e) bb ee
Answer:
D) BB ee
Explanation:
As the black pigment is encoded by the allele B.
Brown pigment is encoded by allelle b.
Allele E allows dark pigment to be deposited in the shaft.
Allele e prevents the deposition of pigment in the shaft.
As genotype of the black female is Bb Ee , that means she has a dominant black pigment ( due to presence of allelle B )and is deposited in the shaft (due to allelle E ).
The genotype of the other parent must be BB ee in order to have half of the puppies yellow and the other half being yellow.
All the other options doesn't form the sequence of 50% black and 50% yellow puppies.
The table of probabilities is attached below .
Peter has occasional episodes of seizures. Dr. Lovell has affixed electrodes to Peter's scalp, which will record the electrical activity within Peter's brain and identify the neurological problem for the seizures. Which of the following techniques is Dr. Lovell using to assess Peter?a. Positron emission tomography b. Electrocardiography c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging d. Electroencephalography
Answer:
D) Electroencephalography
Explanation:
A seizure refers to a change in the behaviour and physical activities of the humans caused by the uncontrolled abnormal activities in the neurons of the brain.
The technique used to record the visual activity in the neurons as a result of the seizures is called Electroencephalography or EEG.
To perform the technique, the electrodes are placed on the scalp and the face and then the change in the electric potential is recorded. This helps analyse that which area of the brain are active and which are not.
Thus, Option-D is the correct answer.
In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes?b) How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
Answer:100; 100
Explanation: OOCYTES are immature eggs produced form the female reproductive organ during gametogenesis. During Gametogenesis the Germ cell of a female produces the oogonia the oogonia matures to primary OOCYTES through Mitosis.
In the female reproductive organ 100 secondary oocytes will be expected to produce 100 primary oocytes while 100 primary oocytes will be needed to produce 100 polar bodies.
Polar bodies are haploid cells which are formed together with the oocytes during Oogenesis.
Adipose tissue _____.
a. provides elastic support and serves as a fluid reservoir
b. is connective tissue that stores fat and has insulating value
c. attaches muscles to bone
d. is formed within bone
e. represents a circulatory fluid
Answer:
b. is connective tissue that stores fat and has insulating value
The plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on this hot, malleable __________ _________ zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere. This is known as the _______________________.
Answer:
the plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on this hot, malleable semi liquid zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere
Explanation:
Lithosphere is the outermost layer of earth surface which contains crust and uppermost solid mantle. Tectonic plates are subdivision of lithosphere where tectonic activities take place. Tectonic activities often occur in Lithosphere which affects the structure of this layer by changing the landscape on earth surface. The Lithosphere is the layer where soil forming process takes place. The lithosphere influences temperature difference on earth when it reacts with the other layers called atmosphere, hydrosphere and cryosphere.The lithosphere plates move on the asthenosphere in the upper mantle, a process known as plate tectonics. The movement is facilitated by slow convection of the mantle. When plates come together, one plate is subducted beneath another, a process occurring in subduction zones.
Explanation:The plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on the hot, malleable asthenosphere zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere. This is known as plate tectonics.
Earth's crust and upper mantle are divided into about a dozen tectonic plates that fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle. The power to move the plates is provided by slow convection of the mantle, a process by which heat escapes from the interior through the upward flow of warmer material and the slow sinking of cooler material.
As new crust is added to Earth, the old crust must go somewhere. When two plates come together, one plate is often forced beneath another in what is called a subduction zone. The subducted plate is forced down into regions of high pressure and temperature, eventually melting several hundred kilometers below the surface. Its material is recycled into a downward-flowing convection current, ultimately balancing the flow of material that rises along rift zones.
Learn more about Plate Tectonicshttps://brainly.com/question/14667982
#SPJ12
how can a calendar year help us to understand the magnitude of geologic time
Answer:
The civil year allows us to have an idea of how long our planet has existed.
Explanation:
Calendar year is the 12-month period that corresponds to 365 days of the year, counting from 1 January to 31 December. Geological time, in turn, refers to the didactic organization of the evolution of planet Earth and the forms of life that inhabit or inhabited it. It is an instrument used by Earth's geologists and scientists to analyze and chronologically categorize (through the concept of a civil year) the natural evolution of the world in which we live, in order to better understand its past.
The civil year allows geological time to expose the number of years and days that planet Earth (and its forms of life) are in existence.
Answer:
All above
Explanation:
The "distance" between two linked gene pairs can be expressed as a percentage. Name the unit based on percent recombination that was created in honour of the scientist who pioneered the use of fruit flies for genetic research?
Answer:
Centimorgan
Explanation:
Centimorgan is a unit that measures the recombinant frequency. When we say that recombinant frequency is 1 then it means that there is 1% chance of separation of marker between two genetic locus when a cross is carried out in the single generation. This unit was devised as a token of remembrance for geneticist Thomas Hunt Morgan who was also a noble prize winner.
There are one million base pairs in one centimorgan
Final answer:
A centimorgan (cM) is the unit of genetic distance that reflects the percent recombination between two genes, named in honor of Thomas Hunt Morgan for his contributions to genetic research using fruit flies.
Explanation:
The unit based on percent recombination that was created to honor the scientist who pioneered the use of fruit flies for genetic research is called a centimorgan (cM). This unit reflects the genetic distance between two genes based on their recombination frequency. A centimorgan corresponds to a 1% chance that a crossing over event will occur between two alleles during meiosis. Therefore, if two genes exhibit a recombination frequency of 1%, they are said to be 1 cM apart on a chromosome. This unit was named after Thomas Hunt Morgan, the scientist who conducted extensive research using fruit flies. Genetic maps constructed using centimorgans show the relative positions of genes on a chromosome.
What structural characteristics common to Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response?
Answer:
External polysaccharides and Lipid A of Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response.
Explanation:
Lipid A is an endotoxin lipid component responsible for the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Its the last internal region among the three regions of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) which is also called as endotoxin molecule. Its hydrophobic nature helps it to attach the LPS to the outer membrane. Moreover, lipid A anchor, a polysaccharide core attached with a chains of carbohydrates.
The dosage of a certain drug is reduced when administered to a pregnant woman with liver impairment. What is the other clinical situation that requires reduction in the dose of the drug during pregnancy?
Answer:
renal impairment
Explanation:
It is the imability of the kidneys to excrete waste and balance fluids.
Defective renal function could result in a high amount of drug levels. It might also increase the drug disclosure to the tissues and lead to a high level of drug distribution to the fetus. Epilepsy, diabetes, and hypertension do not have a straight effect on drug metabolism and excretion. However, they have ancillary impact in later phases when liver and kidneys are affected secondarily.
Answer: RENAL IMPAIRMENTS
Explanation: RENAL IMPAIRMENTS is a term used to describe the inability of the Renal System (Kidneys) to effectively carry out it's activities. When a pregnant woman has Renal impairments,it is Generally expected that the level or amount of drugs dose issues to her be reduced to a manageable quantity.
The kidneys are directly responsible for the FILTRATION of the urines and Blood,so if high quantity of drugs are present it might not be able to effectively perform it tasks. Epilepsy, Hypertension and diabetes have late stage renal impairments.
Stressed the development of physical fitness and sport skills as the primary objectives of physical education A. Jay Nash B. Charles McCloy
Answer:
Option C , Charles McCloy
Explanation:
Complete question is as follows -
Stressed the development of physical fitness and sport skills as the primary objectives of physical education A Luther Gulick B Jay Nash C Charles McCloy D Jesse Williams
Solution
McCloy was a prominent professor of physical education. Throughout his career, he emphasized the importance of resistance training. He believed that the main objective of physical education is to not to build body but to learn the skills of any sport and to maintain personal health &fitness.
He himself was very peculiar about purposive exercise rather than focusing on competitive sports or exercises like all other physical educators. He analyzed all sports scientifically by conducting tests and measurements. Due to this, he once criticized the weight lifting sports saying that it will make a sportsmen slow and inflexible.
Hence, option C is correct
The approach that reflects the philosophy that there is waste in neglecting the development and use of certain natural resources (such as dead trees in old growth forests) would best be described as _________.
Answer:
utilitarian conservation or Pragmatic resource conservation
Explanation:
As per the utilitarian conservation or Pragmatic resource conservation, the resources must be utilized to their full capacity up to the possible longest period of time for the greatest good of all.
Therefore, even if the leaves become dead they can be used one more time for preparing compost of fertilizer thereby putting it to greatest use till its greatest number of times.
You are watching a televised debate on evolution. One of the participants repeatedly states that evolution is a "scientific theory," and as such is unsupported by any evidence. What is wrong with this statement?
Answer:
Answer : Scientific theories are rigorously supported by numerous studies, and are hypotheses that, even up till date, have never been disproved.
Explanation:
Scientific theory can be explained as a theory that was highly supported by facts. This means that , it is continuously or repeatedly confirmed by observation and experiment by scientists.
Evolution can be described as changes that occur in the heritable characters over a period of time. This usually occurs through natural selection.
In this case, evolution is known to be a scientific theory, because it involved careful observations and confirming experiments by scientists.
The statement that evolution is an unsupported 'scientific theory' is incorrect, as in science, a theory is a robust explanation backed by substantial evidence. The theory of evolution, in particular, is supported by extensive research and is widely accepted by scientists. Critics often misunderstand the term 'theory' in a scientific context, leading to misconceptions about the supporting evidence for evolution.
Explanation:The statement that evolution is a "scientific theory" and is unsupported by any evidence is an incorrect assertion. The confusion arises from the difference between the common use of the term "theory" and its scientific meaning. In science, a theory is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspect of the natural world that has been repeatedly confirmed through observation and experimentation. The theory of evolution is similarly supported by a vast body of evidence from various fields such as genetics, paleontology, and comparative anatomy, making it one of the most reliable and accepted explanations in science.
Furthermore, the concept of evolution is well-founded and upheld by the scientific community. A Pew Research poll showed that 97% of scientists agree with the principle of species evolving over time. It's incorrect to suggest that the theory is still controversial among biologists, as it has robust experimental and observational evidence.
When critics of evolution dismiss it as "just a theory," they are misusing the term and neglecting the large amount of evidence that supports it—evidence that encompasses fossil records, DNA sequence comparisons, and the observation of natural selection in action. Such critiques often stem from a misunderstanding of scientific language and do not reflect the consensus within the scientific community.
In humans, random mating is most likely to occur for which of the following characteristics? Select one:B. personality C. physical appearance D. intelligence E. athleticism
Intelligence is most likely to be the criteria for random mating in humans.
Explanation:
If random mating is taking place on the conditions that no evolution is taking place the genetic pool will be maintained through generations.
Random mating will be based on intelligence in humans because this is the trait which gets exhibited only when showcased otherwise remains hidden while other characters like personality, appearance and athleticism are phenotypically expressed character.
Random mating is not under the influence of genotype. Intelligence is a trait which needs to be more in human as random mating takes genotype frequency in consideration.
In the city of Birthville, an elderly midwife who has been working at the community center for several years noticed that there were no deliveries in the month of May in a particular year. In her discussion with the matron of the clinic, she said, "There were no deliveries in May of that year." In scientific process, her response can be classified as:_________-
Deductive reasoning plays an essential role in attaining a valid conclusion during a scientific process. It is considered a fundamental form of valid reasoning.
The correct answer is deductive reasoning in the given case as the elderly midwife has no deliveries this year.
Deductive reasoning-
Deductive reasoning is the process of reasoning from one or more statements (premises) to succeed in a logical conclusion.
Deductive reasoning goes within the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions. In deductive reasoning, there is no uncertainty.
The Deduction begins with a hypothesis or a usual statement that helps in finding the possible ways to attain a particular and valid conclusion.
Deductive reasoning is used in examining hypotheses and theories in a scientific method. Deductive reasoning generally follows certain steps before reaching an eventual inference.
It plays an essential part in the process of making decisions. In arguments and decision-making, it's used as a base to supply factual proof.
Thus, in the given case, the response of the midwife can be classified as deductive reasoning.
Learn more about deductive reasoning here:
https://brainly.com/question/1292801
Final answer:
The midwife's comment on the absence of deliveries in May can be seen as anecdotal evidence, hinting at possible cultural, social, or environmental influences on birthing practices in Birthville. It reflects the diverse nature of childbirth methods globally and the role of midwives in different societies.
Explanation:
The elderly midwife's observation that there were no deliveries in May of that year can be classified as an anecdotal evidence in the scientific process. Such an observation is the beginning point for identifying trends and potential patterns within the community's birthing practices. Given the variety of childbirth methods around the world, this absence of births could be influenced by cultural, social, or even environmental factors at play in Birthville.
Different societies handle childbirth in diverse ways. For instance, in the United States, childbirth is typically a medicalized process, with expectant mothers giving birth in hospitals under the care of medical professionals. However, in other cultures, such as agricultural societies or foraging communities, childbirth may take place at home or in a more natural setting with the assistance of midwives.
The midwife in this scenario may be noting a trend that could be worth investigating further, reflecting the impact of cultural beliefs, economic conditions, or public health policies on the patterns of childbirth within the community.
GTPases serve in many signal transduction pathways and the presence of GTP or GDP dictates where the pathway is on or off, respectively. Which of the following statements is true regarding guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and the role in these signaling pathways?
a. They hydrolyze GTP into GDP and Pi.
b. They decrease the GTPase activity of the G-protein.
c. They catalyze the dissociation of GDP on the G-protein and promote the replacement of GTP.
d. none of the above
Answer:
None of the above.
Explanation:
GTPases are the regulatory proteins that are involved in the signal transduction pathway involving the activation of the G protein. The mutation in these proteins cal lead to cancer cells.
The guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) allows the replacement of GDP by GTP. They activates the GTPase activity of the cell and can also activate the multiple GTPase activity of the cell. The Ras superfamily is activated by the GEF.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Describe the structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA. List and describe each of the three types of RNA. Define transcription. Describe the process. Where does it occur in the cell
Answer:
Structural functions:
The structural and functional difference between the DNA and RNA is that. The DNA is made of nitrogenous bases, deoxy ribose sugar and phosphate bond.The RNA is made of ribose sugar, nitrogenous bases and phosphate. The nitrogenous base thymine is replaced by uracil in case of RNA.The three different types of RNA are: tRNA , rRNA and mRNA. The transcription can be defined as the first step of the gene expression. It involves the copying the DNA of the gene to convert it into RNA.Transcription takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of _____
A phylogenetic tree constructed using mitochondrial DNA sequence differences is most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of closely related species or over short evolutionary timescales. This is due to the rapid mutation rate of mtDNA and its unbroken maternal lineage.
Explanation:A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of organisms over relatively short evolutionary timescales or within closely related species. Mitochondrial DNA mutates more rapidly than nuclear DNA, thus accruing detectable changes in relatively short evolutionary timescales.
Molecular phylogeny relies on the principle that the more similar the DNA sequences in two organisms, the more closely related they are. For determining the relationships among closely related species, rapidly evolving sequences such as mtDNA can be useful.
Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited with no recombination, therefore, it offers a clear lineage tracing back to an organism's maternal ancestry. This lineage can give a clear depiction of evolutionary relatedness among species depicted on a phylogenetic tree.
Learn more about Mitochondrial DNA here:https://brainly.com/question/28937546
#SPJ12
Final answer:
A phylogenetic tree using mitochondrial DNA differences is most valid for studying the evolutionary relationship between B. chimpanzees and humans, as they are closely related species within the domain Eukarya. This method highlights their recent common ancestry and significant genetic similarity, distinguishing them from the other pairs of organisms listed.
Explanation:
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of chimpanzees and humans. Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited and mutates at a relatively constant rate, making it a useful tool for studying evolutionary relationships among closely related species. In the case of chimpanzees and humans, mitochondrial DNA analysis would provide insights into their recent common ancestry, demonstrating their high genetic similarity and the minor genetic changes that have led to their morphological differences.
Both chimpanzees and humans belong to the domain Eukarya and are closely related within the animal kingdom. A phylogenetic tree based on mitochondrial DNA would clearly illustrate their close evolutionary relationship, as opposed to the relationships between the other options provided, such as archaeans and bacteria, sharks and dolphins, and fungi and animals, which are more distantly related and would not show as clear of a resolution with mitochondrial DNA analysis.
Furthermore, mitochondrial DNA analysis supports the idea that these Eukaryotic organisms share a more recent common ancestor with Archaea than with Bacteria. Such analyses provide a more accurate depiction of evolutionary relationships because they are not confounded by convergent evolution, which can lead to analogous structures in distantly related lineages. Phylogenetic trees based on molecular data, such as mitochondrial DNA, enhance our understanding of the evolutionary history of living organisms.
Which of the following describes why highland regions are colder than the surrounding regions? A.Highland areas are far from large bodies of water. B.Temperature decreases with altitude. C.Highland regions are found in higher latitudes. D. Ocean currents stabilize the climate in highland regions.
Answer:
Which of the following describes why highland regions are colder than the surrounding regions?
Temperature decreases with altitude
Explanation:
It is a known fact that has been proven by scientist over time that the higher the altitude the lesser the temperature. This best explains why mountains record lower temperature than lowland
Answer:
B. Temperature decreases with altitude.
Explanation:
I just took the test!
In angiosperms, the _______________ are the specialized reproductive organs whose main function is to bring together the sperm and egg.
Answer:
Flowers
Explanation:
Angiosperms are plants that have flowers as their specialized reproductive organs. The flowers will give rise to seeds enclosed within an ovary.
The main reproductive parts are the stamen and pistil.
The stamen is the male part and it is made up of the anthers which produces pollen and the filament that holds the anthers in position.
The pistil on the other hand is the female reproductive part composed of ovary stigma and style.
The in the ovary is where the ovules are produced.
Answer:
Flowers
Explanation:
The flowers functions to ensure pollination by bringing together the sperm and egg. They also confer protection to the ovule and developing embryo inside a receptacle and protect the developing seedling.
TFIIF has weak homology to bacterial sigma factor and is necessary to bring eukaryotic pol II to the pre-initiation complex. The effect TFIIF has on the binding of pol II to general DNA sequences is:_______.
Answer:
The effect TFIIF has on the binding of pol II to general DNA sequences is it increases the affinity of the factors for DNA , increases the number of protein-DNA contacts and changes the recognition binding site.
Cystic fibrosis is often considered an autosomal recessive disorder, however, on a molecular level, it is actually codominant. Carriers of cystic fibrosis who are heterozygous for the disease produce both normal and defective CFTR proteins. Carriers do not exhibit symptoms of the disease because enough normal protein is created to prevent a build-up of mucus. Which combinations of parents below have a possibility of having a child who is homozygous for cystic fibrosis? Select all that apply. A mother is CC and father is CC' B mother is CC' and father is CC' C mother is C'C' and father is CC D mother is CC and father is CC E mother is CC' and father is C'C' F mother is C'C' and father is C'C'
The statement B, E and F is correct in case of cystic fibrosis.
What is cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition. It's caused by a faulty gene that affects the movement of salt and water in and out of cells. This, along with recurrent infections, can result in a build-up of thick, sticky mucus in the body's tubes and passageways – particularly the lungs and digestive system.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a disease that is passed down through families. It is caused by a defective gene that makes the body produce abnormally thick and sticky fluid, called mucus. This mucus builds up in the breathing passages of the lungs and in the pancreas.
There's currently no cure for cystic fibrosis, but a number of treatments are available to help control the symptoms, prevent complications, and make the condition easier to live with. Possible treatments include: antibiotics to prevent and treat chest infections.
Learn more about cystic fibrosis:
https://brainly.com/question/18910554
#SPJ6
What protein (purine)-rich food should be limited to prevent a reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones?
Answer:
Animal proteins such as egg, red meat, sea foods etc
Explanation:
Foods rich in animal proteins generally boost the level of uric acid in the body and make individuals to be more prone to uric acid kidney stones.
High protein level in the body as a result of high protein diets also increase the chances of uric kidney stones because this reduces the citrate level in the body. Citrate prevents the formation of stone by limiting the amount of uric acid in urine.
Hence, limiting the intake of animal protein-rich foods such as egg, red meat, etc., will prevent the reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones.
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of _____, which means we choose the _____ possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the _____ evolutionary changes or mutations.
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
b. parsimony; simplest; most
c. parsimony; most; likely
d. phylogenetics; simplest; fewest
e. phylogenetics; simplest; most
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of parsimony, which means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations.
Explanation:
Phylogeny describes the evolutionary history of on organism or group of organisms.
A phylogenetic tree structure is used to describe the relationship between various organisms which have originated from common ancestors.
The Principle of Parsimony is best applied while constructing phylogenetic tree.
This principle emphasizes on simple observations on a phylogeny which requires only few changes or variations which explain for the difference between the phylogenic sequences.
This tree structure will only have few specific genetic variations or mutations or evolutionary changes which took place through new appearance of a trait or disappearance of an existing trait.
Final answer:
In phylogenetic analysis, the principle of maximum parsimony is used to choose the simplest hypothesis, which is the tree with the fewest evolutionary changes. parsimony; simplest; fewest is correct. This approach assumes evolutionary events occurred most straightforwardly. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
When selecting from multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, the principle commonly used is maximum parsimony. This means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, this translates to selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations. Therefore, the correct answer is a. parsimony; simplest; fewest.
Maximum parsimony is a concept used by scientists to construct phylogenetic trees in a way that the evolutionary events are assumed to have occurred in the most straightforward manner possible. This often results in a phylogenetic tree that exhibits the fewest number of character reversals, independent character changes, and overall character changes.
In snail shells the direction of shell coiling is controlled by a maternal effect gene. Two alleles, a dominant one, D, causes dextral (right handed) coiling, and a recessive one, d, causing sinistral (left hand) coiling.
Given three different female snails of genotypes DD, Dd, and dd, crossed with dd males.
What are the phenotypes of the offspring of each
DD females:
Dd females:
dd females:
What are the phenotypes of these females. Explain, based on the probable parental (both maternal and paternal for each female. (Hint: you may not be able to give definitive answers for each. If so explain why in terms of the possible parents.)
DD female:
Dd female:
dd female:
Answer:
The answer is explained below:
Explanation:
A maternal effect gene is the one which shows the same phenotype as that of the mother irrespective of the phenotype of the father.According to the question, D is the dominant alelle, and show right-handed coil phenotype.d is the recessive alelle, and show left-handed coil phenotype.As we do not know the phenotypes of the mothers of the DD, Dd, or dd females or the dd male taken to be crossed with each other, let us consider that the DD, Dd and dd female show a right hand coil phenotype and the dd male show a left hand coil phenotype.When DD female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),D D
d Dd Dd
(R) (R)
d Dd Dd
(R) (R)
All the offspring will have the Dd genotype with the (R), that is, right-hand coil phenotype.When Dd female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),D d
d Dd dd
(R) (R)
d Dd dd
(R) (R)
The genotypic ratio is, Dd : dd = 1 : 1.All the offspring have the dominant right hand coil phenotype, represented by (R), as this is a maternal effect gene and the phenotype of the mother is shown in all its offspring irrespective of their genotype.When dd female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),d d
d dd dd
(R) (R)
d dd dd
(R) (R)
All the offspring will have the dd genotype.All the offspring have the dominant right hand coil phenotype, represented by (R), as this is a maternal effect gene and the phenotype of the mother is shown in all its offspring irrespective of their genotype.Offspring phenotype is determined by the female snail's genotype due to the maternal effect gene; DD and Dd females produce dextral-coiled offspring, while dd females produce sinistral-coiled offspring when crossed with dd males.
In snail shells, the coiling direction is influenced by a maternal effect gene with two alleles: a dominant allele D for dextral (right-handed) coiling and a recessive allele d for sinistral (left-handed) coiling. Since it's a maternal effect gene, the offspring's phenotype will be determined by the mother's genotype regardless of the offspring's genotype. When different female snails are crossed with dd males, the offspring’s phenotypes depend solely on the maternal genotype.
DD females: All offspring will show dextral coiling, because the dominant allele D from the mother determines the phenotype.
Dd females: All offspring will also show dextral coiling, similar to DD mothers, since D is dominant and dictates the phenotype over d.
dd females: All offspring will show sinistral coiling, because the mother's genotype is homozygous recessive.
Regarding the phenotypes of the females themselves:
DD female: Dextral coiling phenotype, but without knowing her parents' genotypes, we can't say for certain if she is a product of DD x DD, DD x Dd, or DD x dd (with a homozygous dominant mother).
Dd female: Dextral coiling phenotype, which could result from a cross of Dd x dd or Dd x Dd, with at least one dextral parent.
dd female: Sinistral coiling phenotype, clearly indicating a dd x dd parental cross.
Therefore, the offspring's phenotype will be dextral when crossing DD or Dd females with dd males, and sinistral when crossing dd females with dd males.
_____ is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.
Answer: Alpha Feroprotein Assay
Explanation:
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to detect neural tube defects in a developing child. Alpha fero-protein is produced in the liver of a developing fetus. During a baby's development, some AFP passes through the placenta and into the mother's blood. An AFP test measures the level of AFP in pregnant women during the second trimester of pregnancy. Too much or too little AFP in a mother's blood may be sign of a birth defect or other condition, which include, neural tube defect, a serious condition that causes abnormal development of a developing baby's brain and/or spine
Spadefoot Toads can develop into 2 different morphs, one is carnivorous, and the other omnivorous. In ordered to develop into the carnivorous morph, the jaw develops at a faster growth rate than the rest of the body; this is an example of:
Answer: Allometry
Explanation:
Allometry explains how the body parts grow at different rates such that the jaw of the spadefoot toads develop it's jaw at a rapid rate than other body parts.
Thus, the differential growth rate shown in the carnivorous morph is to aid feeding and hence survival.
A client is injured from falling from a hospital bed on which the side rails were not raised appropriately. the client's family files a malpractice suit against the nurse responsible for taking care of the client. which statements regarding the lawsuit are accurate
Answer:
The defendant receives all medical files of the complainant during the discovery period.
The jury employs certain care standards to decide if the nurse has acted correctly.
The plaintiff describes the defendant's mistakes as well as how the pleadings had been injured.
The Golgi complex functions to synthesize proteins. both modify and sort proteins into those destined for secretion and those that function in membrane structures. sort proteins used within the cell. modify and secrete proteins to the external environment.
Answer:
both modify and sort proteins into those destined for secretion and those that function in membrane structures.
Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is a single membrane-bound organelle that has a 5-8 flattened sac. Golgi is divided into two faces cis face which is known as entry face and trans face which is known as a maturing face.
The function of the Golgi apparatus is the sorting and modification of proteins and lipids. The modified proteins are packed into vesicles and released in the cytoplasm.
Form cytoplasm they move to their destination for example they can be corporated into the plasma membrane or can be secreted out of the cell.
Consider the Keeling curve, which shows a steady increase in CO₂ levels over the past 50+ years. This steady rise has been attributed to both natural and human activity. Imagine if everyone in the world planted a fast-growing vine that was an annual (i.e., it grows large and fast, but dies after one year). Predict the effect this would hypothetically have on the level of CO₂ in the atmosphere over the next 20 years.
a. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will stay the same because the growing annuals will remove the extra CO₂ from human activity.
b. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily decrease because of increased rates of photosynthesis.
c. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily increase because decomposition of the annuals simply returns the CO₂ back into the atmosphere.
Answer:
b. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily decrease because of increased rates of photosynthesis.
Explanation:
Because each person would plant a considerable amount of plant material atmospheric carbon dioxide would decrease because through the process of photosynthesis of these plants Co2 is consumed and transformed into glucose and oxygen.
The level of CO2 in the atmosphere will steadily increase due to decomposition of the fast-growing annual plants, releasing CO2 back into the atmosphere. Hence the correct option is C.
The level of CO2 in the atmosphere will steadily increase because decomposition of the annuals simply returns the CO2 back into the atmosphere.The increased growth of fast-growing vines, being annual plants, will lead to their death after one year. Upon decomposition, the CO2 stored in the plants will be released back into the atmosphere, contributing to an overall rise in CO2 levels. This scenario aligns with the natural carbon cycle where plant decomposition leads to the release of carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect and climate change.