Answer:
The correct answer is : increased blood pressure.
Explanation:
The renin-angiotensin system in the regulation of blood pressure. Angiostensin II is the principle hormone in the renin angiotensin system that leads to the vasoconstriction and elevation of water retention and sodium which finally leads to the high blood pressure.
RAAS is the system initiate in stress as it promotes oxidative stress in the brain. Angiotensin 2 ultimately increasing sympathetic outflow and increase to high blood pressure.
Thus, the correct answer is - increased blood pressure.
Beatrice was born without cone cells in her retina. What effect will this most likely have on her vision? She will be unable to see out of the side of her eyes. Her vision will be unaffected. She will be colorblind. She will be completely blind.
Answer:
The answer is, she will be colour blind.
Explanation:
If cone cells are not present in a person's retina, they cannot see colours in the day.
Rods and Cones are photo receptors in human retina. Rods allow us to see during low light. they have low spatial acuity and do not mediate colour vision. If rods are not present, she would have night blindness.
Cones are capable of having colour vision. They are active at the higher light levels.
Rods and Cones are photo receptors, but with cones specifically, if they are not there then we would not be able to distinguish colours. This condition is referred to as colour blindness.
Which of the following generate the type of externality previously described? Check all that apply. The local airport has doubled the number of runways, causing additional noise pollution for the surrounding residents. Felix has planted several trees in his backyard that increase the beauty of the neighborhood, especially during the fall foliage season. A microbiology lab has published its breakthrough in swine flu research. Your roommate, Susan, has bought a cat to which you are allergic.
Explanation:
A negative externality happens when the creation or utilization of a decent aim a negative impact on an outsider. It is a secondary effect of an economic activity which besides, it's not reflected in the profit or direct costs of that activity. Some examples of negative externalities are loud music, pollution, vehicular congestion or building new roadsHence, the right answer is " the local airport has doubled the number of runways, causing additional noise pollution for the surrounding residents"
All of the following except __________ developed in some vascular plants and are not present in any nonvascular plants.All of the following except __________ developed in some vascular plants and are not present in any nonvascular plants.
Answer:
Vascular plants have separate tubular tissues such as xylem, phloem for smooth transport of water, minerals and food while non-vascular plants do not show these attributes.
Explanation:
Although both life cycles are divided between the sporophytic and gametophytic generations, vascular plants have a dominant diploid sporophytic phase while non-vascular plants have a dominant haploid gametophytic phase.
Non-vascular plants are poikilohydric (they can withstand dehydration and can recover without any damage to their tissues), though they cannot control the water level in their cells and tissues. On the other hand, vascular plants are homoiohydry. They can survive in any habitat and can control the water content in cells and tissues, though they have low capacity to survive dessication compared to the non-vascular plants.
Non-vascular plants do not have true leaf. The leaves are mere chlorophyll containing. Photosynthesized food are directly sent from one cell to the other. They lack proper transport mechanism for food and water.
On the other hand, the vascular plants have complex multilayered leaf (cells) structure. The waxy layer cuticles on the leaves prevent dessication. That are more chlorophyll containing than their counterpart.
The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history, resulting in two main subgroups-Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa. What does this finding suggest?
Answer:
Division of these two groups occurred after the protostome developmental sequence appeared
What is the term for the ratio of the amount of feed input it takes to produce a set quantity of animal product output (such as a unit of weight gain or a dozen eggs)
Answer:
Feed conversion ratio
Explanation:
This is the amount of feed needed for the growth and development of the animal and how it’s utilized. Some animals require more food before appreciable weight gain or other outputs.
The feed conversion ratio is indirectly proportional to the growth and efficiency. This means the higher the feed conversion ratio the lower the efficiency and vice versa.
Answer: The term is feed conversion ratio/rate (F.C.R)
Explanation:
Feed conversion ratio which is sometimes also called feed conversion rate is a rate determinant of the effectiveness with which livestock bodies systems usually convert animal feed into output.Output in this case may be milk for diary animals, eggs for poultry etc.
In simpler terms, feed conversion rate/ratio (FCR) is the amount of units of animal feed that an animal uses to make/produce one unit of product. For instance, a herder may seek to find out the quantity of feed it may take to grow one kilogram of beef. The knowledge the farmer seeks for is feed conversion ratio
If a somatic cell during metaphase of mitosis contains 16 chromatids, and a germ-line cell from this species divides by meiosis, then at the end of meiosis I (including the first cytokinesis) each cell will contain _
Answer:
8 chromatids
Explanation:
Meiosis is a kind of division that produces offsprings with their chromosomal number reduced by half. It occurs in a two-step division i.e. meiosis I and II. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) separate.
Hence, in this case involving a somatic cell with 16 chromatids. This means that it possesses 8 chromosomes since each chromosome comprises of two sister chromatids. During Anaphase 1 of meiosis 1, each homologous chromosome separate into opposite poles of the cell, and after cytokinesis, there would be 4 chromosomes (8 chromatids) in each cell.
These chromatids will separate in meiosis II.
Leslie was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes when his fasting blood glucose level was discovered to be far too high. His ____________ production, which is secreted by the pancreas, was not controlling his blood glucose.
Answer:
INSULIN PRODUCTION
Explanation:
The pancreas is responsible for secreting digestive fluid and juices into the small intestine, this aids digestion of food and absorption into the blood stream.
Also the pancreas secrets insulin into the blood stream. This insulin is responsible for regulating the blood sugar level, or blood glucose levels and enables body cells to absorb glucose that would be broken down to release energy.
Answer:
insulin production
Which of the following processes produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized? Group of answer choices aerobic respiration lactic acid fermentation alcoholic fermentation All produce approximately the same amount of ATP per molecule of glucose.
Explanation:
Respiration is the metabolic process of most living things in which food molecules or glucose are turned into usable energy for the cell, called ATP. Respiration is the anti-process to photosynthesis, the process in which plants use sunlight and carbon dioxide to build food molecules releasing oxygen as a waste productDuring aerobic respiration, oxygen is present and helps the process to crank out energy very efficientlyIt all starts with sugar An organism takes in carbohydrates for energy, and the digestion process breaks the carbs down into their smallest units, glucose, a type of sugar molecule. Cells then make energy by breaking the glucose molecule down and releasing its electrons, which are later used to help crank out ATPThe following processes produce the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized - aerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration:A total of 36 ATPs are produced from aerobic respiration for each glucose2 from glycolysis2 from the citric acid cycle32 from ETP).Lactic acid fermentation:A total of 2 ATPs are produced from it.Lactic acid fermentation has two steps: glycolysis and NADH regeneration.During glycolysis, one glucose molecule is converted to two pyruvate molecules, producing two net ATP and two NADH. Alcoholic fermentation:Alcoholic fermentation occurs in yeast and produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.Fermentation only produces two ATP per glucose molecule through glycolysisThus, The following processes produce the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized - aerobic respiration.
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In the epinephrine pathway, an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase activity would have which of the following effects? A. block the activation of protein kinase A B. block the activation of G proteins in response to epinephrine binding to its receptor C. prolong the effect of epinephrine by maintaining elevated cAMP levels in the cytoplasm D. block the response of epinephrine
Answer: C). prolong the effect of epinephrine by maintaining elevated cAMP levels in the cytoplasm
Explanation: In the epinephrine pathway, binding of epinephrine to its receptor triggers a conformational change in the receptor and the interaction of the receptor with its associated Gs protein. This interaction causes the replacement of GDP bound to Gs protein with GTP thus activating the Gs protein. The activation of the Gs protein causes the alpha subunit of the Gs protein to dissociate and move to adenylyl cyclase, another membrane protein in the pathway. The association of the alpha subunit of the Gs protein with adenylyl cyclase activates adenylyl cyclase which in turn catalyzes the synthesis of cyclic AMP (cAMP) a second messenger. cAMP is quickly degraded to 5'-AMP by an enzyme phosphodiesterase. Inhibition of the activity of phosphodiesterase will increase the half life and the cytoplasmic level of cAMP thus potentiating the action of epinephrine.
How is prophase i different from prophase ii in meiosis?
what condition is a major contributor to disability and placement in nursing homes for those over age 75 and is often accompanied by food intake changes?
Answer:
Dementia
Explanation:
Dementia is a condition that involves impaired mental ability and memory which is common among older adults. This condition, which is a major contributor to disability and placement of older adults in nursing homes, can be as a result of several factors of which nutrition has a major role to play. Metabolic and endocrine problem that results to the inability of the body system to regulate nutrients such as calcium and vitamin B-12, are some of the factors that triggers dementia in older adults. Also, nutritional deficiencies such as dehydration, inadequate intake of vitamin B-1, vitamins B-6, copper,vitamin E, and vitamin B-12 increases the chances of developing dementia in older adults.
Research shows that low levels of vitamin D can be linked to increased risk of developing dementia, and as such, supplements such as B-complex vitamin, vitamin C, and vitamin D is usually recommended for the prevention of dementia, especially when they are deficient in the diets taken.
For the following, match the appropriate drug or drug class to its correct action. Choose the best answer for each. Symlin metformin Prandase Victoza Invokana A. slows digestion of dietary starches and complex carbohydrates by inhibiting an enzyme that breaks them down into glucose B. lower blood glucose levels by preventing the kidney from reabsorption of glucose. Rather, the filtered glucose is excreted in the urine. C. does not act directly on the beta cells, but increase sensitivity of the insulin receptor to the binding of naturally secreted insulin thus improving movement of glucose into the cells. D. acts like natural gut hormones that are secreted with meals at the same time insulin is secreted to help lower blood glucose levels by delaying gastric emptying E. noninsulin antidiabetic drug that delays gastric emptying and lowers after-meal blood glucose levels
Answer:
Symlin-E
Metaformin-C
Prandase-A
Victoza-D
Invokana-B
Explanation:
These drugs fall under non-insulin drugs that are used to treat diabetes.
Each of the listed drugs has a unique mechanism of action aimed at managing blood glucose levels. Symlin is a noninsulin antidiabetic drug, Metformin increases insulin receptor's sensitivity, Prandase slows digestion of certain carbohydrates, Victoza mimics natural gut hormones, and Invokana prevents glucose reabsorption by kidneys.
Explanation:The appropriate drug or drug class to its correct action are as follow:
Symlin: E. noninsulin antidiabetic drug that delays gastric emptying and lowers after-meal blood glucose levels.Metformin: C. does not act directly on the beta cells, but increase sensitivity of the insulin receptor to the binding of naturally secreted insulin thus improving movement of glucose into the cells.Prandase: A. slows digestion of dietary starches and complex carbohydrates by inhibiting an enzyme that breaks them down into glucose.Victoza: D. acts like natural gut hormones that are secreted with meals at the same time insulin is secreted to help lower blood glucose levels by delaying gastric emptying.Invokana: B. lower blood glucose levels by preventing the kidney from reabsorption of glucose. Rather, the filtered glucose is excreted in the urine.Learn more about Diabetes medication here:https://brainly.com/question/32787413
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Norman Triplett observed that adolescents wound a fishing reel faster in the presence of someone working simultaneously on the same task. This best illustrates....
Answer:
social facilitation
Explanation:
The concept of social facilitation was first proposed by Norman Triplett. After observing a cycling event, in which he noticed that cyclist performed better when they have others around competing with them, rather than cycling alone just against time. This led him to duct an experiment where he gave some children strings to wound fishing reel. He observed that, children wound the fishing reel faster in the presence of other children performing similar task, when compared to when perform such task alone.
This concept discovered by Norman Triplett, best illustrates the concept of social facilitation, which posits that, individuals tend to perform better in the mere presence of others or when they perform a task with others, than when performing the task alone.
Norman Triplett's observation of adolescents performing a task faster in the presence of others illustrates the concepts of social facilitation and deindividuation. The increased performance when being observed is related to the Hawthorne effect. It also relates to ideas of workplace efficiency through task specialization.
Explanation:The observation made by Norman Triplett that adolescents wind a fishing reel faster in the presence of someone working simultaneously on the same task illustrates the concept of social facilitation. Social facilitation is a psychological phenomenon where individuals tend to perform better on tasks when they know they are being observed or when they are in the presence of others performing the same task. This concept aligns well with the Hawthorne effect, where employees' performance improved when they were observed or interacted with by researchers or supervisors.
Another related concept is that of deindividuation. This occurs when people's awareness of their individuality is reduced, often in group settings. This lessened self-awareness can lead to increased adherence to group norms and can stimulate performance on tasks.
Moreover, Triplett's observation also relates to ideas about workplace efficiency. Much like in a factory setting where workers can learn to do tasks more quickly or effectively when they specialize, individuals in Triplett's scenario may have felt a drive to perform the task more quickly due to being observed by another person doing the same task.
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All four possible reactions in the animation are energetically favorable; the energy of the four products is lower than the energy of the original starting molecule. Why does the starting molecule not completely and quickly convert to its possible products before the addition of heat or an enzyme?
Answer:
Starting molecules not completely and quickly convert to its possible product because an activation energy barrier exist that must be overcome for conversion to product.
Explanation:
The activation energy of a chemical reaction is closely related to its rate. This is because molecules can only complete the reaction once they have reached the top of the activation energy barrier. The higher the barrier is, the fewer molecules that will have enough energy to make it over at any given moment.
Many reactions have such high activation energies that they basically don't proceed at all without an input of energy. For instance, the combustion of a fuel like propane releases energy, but the rate of reaction is effectively zero at room temperature. Once a spark has provided enough energy to get some molecules over the activation energy barrier, those molecules complete the reaction, releasing energy. The released energy helps other fuel molecules get over the energy barrier as well, leading to a chain reaction.
A 21-year-old female was lost in the woods for several hours. The ambient temperature is 25 degrees Fahrenheit. She is lethargic and confused. The skin on her hands is waxy and white. What should you do
The female should be gently wrapped with dry blankets due to exposure of temperature of about 25 degrees Fahrenheit.
Explanation:
Prolonged exposure to extreme heat or cold conditions can impair the body’s temperature control system.
In the above case the patient is exposed to extreme cold condition in a wood with a freezing temperature of 25 degrees Fahrenheit (-3 degrees Celsius) which leads to hypothermia and frostbite.
Extreme cold conditions can freeze the tissue layers of the parts of the skin exposed like those of the face, hands and feet especially. Due to this the skin becomes white (even grayish yellow or blue) and waxy, cold and numb, and the outer surface may become hard and blistered. There will also be extreme pain, stinging and tingling sensation in the exposed areas.
These changes are mainly due to impaired blood circulation and hypothermia. Hypothermia which is lowering of body temperature causes confusion and lethargy.
The first-aid given for frostbite primarily includes warming the body. The affected person’s body should be covered with warm and dry blankets gently and loosely and any wet clothes should be removed.
So when the body is warmed, the body temperature also will increase and correct the hypothermic symptoms like lethargy and confusion.
A 21-year-old female exhibiting symptoms of hypothermia needs immediate medical attention. She should be gently warmed, provided shelter from the cold, and evacuated to a medical facility as soon as possible. Monitoring her vitals and avoiding exertion are crucial while awaiting rescue.
Explanation:The 21-year-old female lost in the woods and showing signs of lethargy and confusion with waxy and white skin on her hands is likely suffering from hypothermia, a condition where body temperature drops below 95.0°F. Immediate medical assistance is critical, as hypothermia impairs the body's ability to produce heat and can result from various medical conditions like diabetes, infection, and thyroid dysfunction. The symptoms such as confusion and the appearance of skin suggest that she has a severe case and needs to be gently warmed and brought to a medical facility as soon as possible.
It is important to avoid any aggressive warming or massaging of the affected areas, as this can lead to further tissue damage. Instead, if in a remote location, protect her from the cold by moving to a shelter, removing any wet clothing, wrapping her in blankets or dry clothes, and providing warm liquids if she is conscious and able to swallow. Avoid giving alcohol or caffeinated beverages. Monitoring her vitals and readiness for evacuation to a hospital are high priorities. While waiting for rescue, avoiding unnecessary exertion, which can accelerate heat loss, and keeping the person awake and calm are essential strategies.
Which cell structures are present only in plants, not in animals? Select all that apply. Select all that apply. chloroplasts central vacuole plasma membrane ribosomes cell wall endoplasmic reticulum
Chloroplasts, and cell wall. The chloroplasts are used for photosynthesis, and the cell wall is extra protection. All cells have a cell membrane but only plant cells have both
Chloroplasts, and cell wall and the chloroplasts are used for photosynthesis, and the cell wall is extra protection. All cells have a cell membrane but only plant cells have both.
What are the similarities between Plants and animal cells?Plants and animal cells share a lot of similarities since they both belong to a same group of cells which is the eukaryotic cells. One similarity they share is the cell membrane. This is the part of the cell which surrounds the cytoplasm of a cell.
Cell membrane can be defined as the outermost covering of the plant and animal cell. Its main function is protection from the outer environment. Golgi complex is the organelles is found in both plant and animal cell and helps in the protein modification and packaging for transportation.
Endoplasmic reticulum works very similar to Golgi body as it helps in the modifying and packing of molecules. Cytoplasm is the fluid inside the cell in which all the cell organelles float. It provides shape and flexibility to the cell.
Therefore, Chloroplasts, and cell wall and the chloroplasts are used for photosynthesis, and the cell wall is extra protection. All cells have a cell membrane but only plant cells have both.
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4.The Deepwater Horizon oil spill in 2010 is considered to be the largest oil spill in petroleum industry history. This spill affected over 8,000 marine species including fish, birds, mammals, and more. Do a web search to find information about the affected ecosystems in the Gulf of Mexico. Have these ecosystems and the affected populations full recovered from this oil spill
The Deepwater Horizon oil spill happened in 2010 and is known as the worst oil spill that has ever happened in the Gulf of Mexico. In this event, 5 million barrels of oil were poured into the sea, which resulted in the death of 7 workers, in addition to the destruction of much of the local ecosystem.
This spill lasted 87 days and spread for about 1500 km in the Gulf of Mexico, contaminating the water and killing thousands of animals. Although a team from Deepwater Horizon carried out a cleaning of the site, there are still traces of the leaked oil, which indicates that the ecosystem has not fully recovered. In addition, researchers were able to find petroleum compounds in many animals in the region and even in bird eggs.
Answer and Explanation:
The Deepwater Horizon calamity in 2010 spilled 205.8 million gallons of oil and 225,000 tons of methane into the Gulf of Mexico. Just around 25% of the oil was recuperated, leaving in excess of 154 million gallons of oil adrift. Moreover, almost 2 million gallons of poisonous dispersants were sprayed into the Gulf's waters in order to remove the oil. This didn't really decrease the amount of oil left in the sea, but simply broke it into smaller particles that may really make the oil increasingly dangerous for some sea life and facilitate its entrance into the natural way of life.
The spill have harmed or most likely killed around 82,000 birds of 102 species; around 6,165 ocean turtles; upwards of 25,900 marine mammals; and an immense (yet obscure) number of fish, as well as shellfish, crabs, corals and different animals.
The habitat has been affected too. Besides decimating underwater areas, including considerable territory for the rare dwarf seahorse, the oil spilled more than a thousand miles of shoreline, including beaches and margins. This negatively affected species like seagrass, beach mice and shorebirds.
The oil spill greatly disturbed the ecosystems and obliterated all the natural life reliant on those ecosystem in the Gulf. Clean-up endeavors just evacuate a small amount of the persistent oil and gas spilled. The rest of the oil will keep on harming wildlife for ages. Other than the immediate damage to wildlife, the spill impoverished the people of the Gulf, who greatly rely upon this rich waterway for food, culture, ecological advancement and recreation.
There are several hypotheses about the causes of muscular fatigue. These include depleted muscle glycogen stores, ion imbalances (especially K+), and which other mechanism?
Explanation:
Elevated intracellular Ca2+ has amazingly negative impacts on the elements of subcellular organelles, for example, the ER and mitochondria, prompting weakened metabolic homeostasis. Conversely, mediations that square Ca2+ passage into cells not just improved insulin affectability and glucose homeostasis in stout subjects and diabetic patients yet in addition reestablished autophagy and insulin affect the ability in fat mouse models. In any case, the sub-atomic instruments that interface intracellular Ca2+ over-burden to insulin obstruction have not been totally clarified. Insulin-animated phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphoinositides (PIPs) at the 3-position to deliver PI(3,4)P2 or PI(3,4,5)P3, which select an assortment of flagging proteins with pleckstrin homology (PH) areas, including phosphoinositide-subordinate kinase 1 (PDK1) and protein kinase B (Akt).Cell signaling involves converting extracellular signals to specific responses inside the target cell. Different molecules are involved at each stage of the process. In this activity, you will sort items based on which stage they are involved in:_________1. reception 2. transduction3. response
Answer:
Reception:
- G protein-coupled receptor
- Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
- Signaling Molecule
Transduction:
- Phosphorylation Cascade
- Second Messenger
- Adenylyl Cyclase
- IP3, Ca2+, cAMP
Response:
- Protein Synthesis
15) Spinal interneurons prevent muscle antagonists from interfering with an intended movement by A) the process of reciprocal inhibition. 15) B) initiating a crossed extensor reflex. C) initiating a tendon reflex. D) activating reverberating circuits. E) initiating a stretch reflex.
Answer:
A. The process of reciprocal inhibition.
Explanation:
In our body, not all the muscles contract and relax simultaneously. The muscle supporting certain reflex are contracted while the others need to be relaxed at that time. In the process of reciprocal inhibition, when a message of contraction is sent by the central nervous system to the agonist muscles, the tension in the antagonist muscles is inhibited by the impulses from the spinal interneurons so that the antagonist muscles get relaxed simultaneously and the reflex action can be completed without causing any damage to our muscular system. If both agonist and antagonist muscles will contract and relax simultaneously, there may be tear in the muscles that's why reciprocal inhibition is a important phenomena occurring in our body.
Jason Ormand was arrested on suspicion of sexual assault. The arresting officers did not give Jason his Miranda warnings. Jason confesses to the assault. The DNA evidence taken from the victim shows with 99% certainty that Jason was her attacker. a. Because of the violation of Jason’s rights in the officers’ failure to give the Miranda warnings, the case must be dismissed. b. The case can still proceed with the DNA evidence. c. The case can proceed but only with the victim’s testimony. d. none of the above
Answer:
b. The case can still proceed with the DNA evidence.
Explanation:
Sexual assault is a very sensitive crime. It is a situation whereby a person touches another person in a sexual or provocative manner without the other person's consent.
A sexual assault case will proceed due to the presence of DNA evidence which can help the prosecution team to establish and prove the guilt of the offender.
The case against Jason can still proceed with the DNA evidence despite the lack of Miranda warnings as the Miranda v. Arizona case outlines when a confession is admissible, but does not preclude the use of other evidence. Hence, the correct option is b.
The Miranda v. Arizona case established that a suspect must be informed of their rights, including the right to remain silent and the right to an attorney, for their confession to be admissible in court. Despite not being read his Miranda warnings, the DNA evidence independently obtained can still be used in the case against Jason. Therefore, the correct answer is b. The case can still proceed with the DNA evidence.
Which phylum includes the most basal lineages of animals?
Answer:
Porifera (sponges)
Answer: Porifera
Explanation: Sponges, the members of the phylum Porifera, are a basal Metazoa clade as a sister of the Diploblasts. They are multicellular organisms that have bodies full of pores and channels allowing water to circulate through them, consisting of jelly-like mesohyl sandwiched between two thin layers of cells
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According to cognitive-behaviorists, _____ may play a key role in substance use disorders. This is because the temporary reduction of tension or raising of spirits produced by a drug has a rewarding effect, thus increasing the likelihood that the user will seek this reaction again.
Operant conditioning
Explanation:
A learning process in which an organisms behavior gets associated with some kind of punishments or reward on behalf of that behavior is called operant conditioning.
In the stated situation, the intake of drug reduces the tension and produces a relaxing effect on mind. In order to get this effect again, the user seeks to take the drug again. Thus we can state that his behavior of taking drugs has associated itself with the rewarding effect of reduced tension . Hence, it is operant conditioning that has played the role in the substance use disorder.
If private property rights were established in the air, there would probably be a. more air pollution. b. less air pollution. c. the same amount of air pollution that exists without private property rights in the air. d. better weather.
Explanation:
Air pollution can promote airway inflammation, presenting significantly health dangers for kids with ceaseless respiratory issues. Be that as it may, it is obscure whether this procedure is reversible, with the goal that constraining contamination will profit these kids We estimated the momentary reaction of hypersensitive asthmatic kids presented to a genuine decrease in open-air contamination by utilizing noninvasive biomarkers of aviation route aggravation and capacityHence, the right answer is option b " less air pollution"
Establishing private property rights in the air could lead to b. less air pollution due to the Coase Theorem, which suggests property owners would maintain air quality to protect their asset's value. However, implementation faces substantial enforcement and monitoring challenges.
Establishing private property rights in the air could theoretically lead to b. less air pollution. This is largely based on the Coase Theorem, which suggests that with well-defined property rights, individuals or entities could negotiate the reduction of pollution to balance economic activity and the right to a clean environment. This shift arises because property owners have a vested interest in maintaining the value of their property, including air quality.
Considering the complexities highlighted by Coase, such as monitoring pollution, identifying sources, and managing numerous parties and agreements, enforcement would be a significant challenge. The notion of private property rights in air lends itself to better stewardship but also to complex and costly enforcement and monitoring issues.
If an individual or a group were granted ownership over a portion of the air, they would be motivated to maintain its quality to uphold its value. This could involve negotiating with polluters to reduce or eliminate emissions. However, the practical application of these rights presents substantial obstacles, including the enforcement of agreements and the difficulties in monitoring and proving damage from pollution.
Ligases are enzymes that link two dna fragments together. Suppose a bacterium develops a mutation in the ligase gene needed for dna replication. This mutation results in an inactive form of the enzyme. What outcome can you expect for this bacterium and why?
Answer:
Cell will not replicate because of incomplete DNA replication.
Explanation:
DNA replication is crucial for reproduction/replication of any organism as it involves the duplication of genetic material. So if an organism is unable to perform proper DNA replication it would not be able to reproduce.
DNA polymerase is the enzyme that synthesize the new DNA strand in DNA replication. DNA polymerase can synthesize a strand only in 5'→3' direction. Both of the strands of DNA molecules are opposite in direction. So one strand is synthesized continuously called as leading strand while the other strand is synthesized in form of okazaki fragments called as lagging strand.
The okazaki fragments are joined together by the enzyme ligase. So if Ligase enzyme is absent in bacteria it would not be able to synthesize the lagging strand of DNA and thus could not be able to produce a replica of DNA. And if there is No replication of DNA then No replication of cell would occur.
Explanation:
The primary role of Ligase enzyme during replication is to ensure repair of DNA fragments,it ensures recombination of the DNA backbone to form double strands back, and ensure joining together of short DNA fragments.
Answer:
Therefore if there is mutation in the bacteria cell, Ligases role is blocked, thus recombination of each strands to form double strands is prevented and the bacteria will not be able to undergo replication, because single strand formed can not be used to undergo replication.
When a client develops a fever on the first postoperative day, the LPN/LVN auscultates rales bilaterally in the lower lobes. The LPN/LVN suspects that what complications of surgery is probably developing
The LPN/LVN must be suspecting post operative atelectasis.
Explanation:
Post operative fever in a patient is a common symptom but rales are mostly associated with blocking of air passage. And this blocking of air passage is a common symptom of atelectasis.
Moreover, atelectasis is common in patients who have undergone major surgeries under anesthesia.
Anesthesia changes the rate of lung intake so resulting in collapse of few alveoli.
Thus, it is more probable for the nurse to suspect the development of atelectasis.
Match the definitions with their vocabulary terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ______process in which organisms with extreme expressions of a trait are removed.b. ______process in which shift of a population toward an extreme version of a beneficial trait.c. ______process in which individuals with average traits are removed, creating two populations with extreme traits
The answers are Stabilizing selection, directional selection and disruptive selection respectively.
Explanation:In case of a population of a species, there exists both the homozygous alleles as well as the hybrid of the two characters. This leads to co existence of both hybrids and homozygotes together in a population.
Now because of the natural selection, there remains some characteristics in either homozygotes or in hybrids which gets special advantages over other. So nature selects the preferred race and the number of those individuals in the population increase.
If number of one of the homozygotes increase, then it's the directional selection.
If the number of the hybrids increase, then its Stabilizing selection.
And if both the homozygotes are selected, then it's divergent selection.
Antibiotics kill bacteria by interfering with their growth or cellular activités, like protein synthesis
True
False
Answer:
The statement is TRUE.
Explanation:
Antibiotics are substances that kill bacteria (bactericidal effect) such as penicillin. They are also characterized by generating inhibition of bacterial growth (bacteriostatic effect). They also act by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. They can also inhibit transcription (they act on the beta subunit of the enzyme RNA polymerase DNA dependent) and translation of bacterial proteins (by binding of the 30S or 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome).
Mr. Ramirez, whose blood type is AB-, has been injured and requires a blood transfusion. Which blood type may be acceptable for Mr. Ramirez to acquire?
Answer:
Mr. Ramirez can only accept B-
A client with a history of brain tumors that resulted in partial removal of the pituitary gland years ago expresses concern to the health care provider about whether she will be able to breast-feed her infant. Which physiologic function of the pituitary gland facilitates breast milk production?
Answer:
Prolactin
Explanation:
Prolactin is an hormone in the body that is synthesized by cells called lactrotrophs which are situated in the pituitary gland of a mammal.
Prolactin helps in the development of the mammary glands as well as in the production of breast milk. Prolactin can also be called luteotropin or luteotropin hormone.
When the nipples of a nursing mother are stimulated either by the sucking action of the baby or any external stimulus, the prolactin hormone is released and breast milk is produced.