A cell has 38 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, one daughter cell has 39 chromosomes and the other has 37. What might have caused these abnormal chromosome numbers? What effects do you suppose this might have on cell function? Why?

Answers

Answer 1

Aneuploidy is the condition that occurs when daughter cells are formed with unequal or abnormal number of chromosomes after mitosis and cell division.

Explanation:

Aneuploidy occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to segregate or rearrange leading to chromosomal nondisjunction. This condition leads to genetic mutations, giving rise to abnormal number chromosomes in the daughter cells, where (2n+1) or (2n-1) haploid daughter cells are formed instead of 2n chromosomes.

Trisomy is the aneuploidic condition caused when there is a third chromosomal (2n+1) copy instead of two copies, which has occurred in the given case leading to formation of daughter cells with 39 chromosomes instead of 38.

Aneuploidy disrupts cell function and can lead to organ malformation as in Down's syndrome, cell multiplication leading to cancers, etc due to disturbance of protein homeostasis.


Related Questions

a polypeptide contains 103 amino acids, what is the length of the base pairs?

Answers

Answer:

309 (+3 for stop codon)

Explanation:

The Genetic code is a scheme of 3 nucleotide base pair codons that code for different amino acids.Each amino acid has a codon of 3 base pairs. Therefore, to calculate the size of the mRNA, we use the formula:Total base pairs = Amino acids * 3B.P = 103* 3 = 309The length of the mRNA that codes for 103 amino acids is 309 base pairs plus a 3 base pair stop codon that terminates translation.

     

To calculate the length of base pairs for a polypeptide with 103 amino acids, one multiplies the number of amino acids by three as each is encoded by a codon of three nucleotides, resulting in 309 base pairs.

If a polypeptide contains 103 amino acids, determining the length of base pairs in the corresponding DNA sequence involves understanding the genetic code. Each amino acid in a polypeptide is coded by three nucleotides, known collectively as a codon. Therefore, for a polypeptide of 103 amino acids, we would expect 103 codons. Since each codon is composed of 3 nucleotide pairs, the length of base pairs would be 3 times the number of amino acids, giving us a total of 309 nucleotide pairs.

how does mitral valve prolapse decrease cardiac output?​

Answers

Answer:

When blood abnormally flows backward from the heart ventricle to the left atrium of the heart, the quantity of each chambers will increase. as a result of a major volume of blood is flowing retrograde, forward flow rate decreases despite the left cavum ejection fraction showing traditional.

What usually happens as more rangeland is converted to urban
developments?
O
A. People invent more-efficient lawn mowers.
0
B. Food costs decrease.
C. People learn to eat less meat.
. The amount of land available for grazing increases.​

Answers

Answer:

The amount of land available for grazing decreases.

Explanation:

A rangeland can be described as a vast field of land comprising of grasses, shrubs and a few flowering plants. Such type of land is considered ideal for the the grazing of animals.

However, as more of this land is used for urban development, the more available land for grazing decreases.

When a large group of cats is introduced
to the food web illustrated, almost all of
the mice are consumed in just a few
weeks.
Which population will likely show the
largest increase as a result?
(1) insects
(2) foxes
(3) rabbits
(4) hawks
(5) Squirrels

Answers

Final answer:

The population that will likely show the largest increase as a result of almost all of the mice being consumed is insects.

Explanation:

The population that will likely show the largest increase as a result of almost all of the mice being consumed by a large group of cats is (1) insects.

When the mice population decreases due to predation, the insect population may increase because there will be fewer mice feeding on the insects and competing for resources. This may lead to a larger availability of food and less competition for the insects, allowing their population to grow.

Additionally, the decrease in the mice population may also indirectly benefit other populations such as foxes and hawks, as they rely on mice as a food source. With fewer mice, these predators may turn to insects as an alternative food source, further contributing to the increase in the insect population.

A psychologist proposed an experiment in which he would tell participants that their performance on an intelligence test was extremely low (regardless of actual performance) and then measure their self-esteem. What might an Institutional Review Board ethics committee say about such a proposal?

Answers

Answer:

When a psychologist proposes an experiment that could cause disagreement in the study subjects - through a hoax - to measure their self-esteem, the Institutional Review Board Ethics Committee will say that deception is allowable only if it is revealed afterward and if the emotional distress that it causes is short lived.

Explanation:

Options for this question:

A. Deception is allowable only if it is revealed afterward and if the emotional distress that it causes is short lived.

B. Deception is allowable only if participants give informed consent prior to the experiment.

C. Deception is never allowable.

D. Deception such as this would cause emotional discomfort, so it should not be done.

Any study or research test applied to people is subject to the regulations of an ethics committee, who will set the guidelines for this study.

Research that aims to expose research individuals to negative feedback can have psychological and emotional repercussions that must be measured and controlled.

In this case, the opinion of the institutional ethics committee will be to evaluate the scope that this research can have and to suggest that those evaluated know, after the test, that it was only a test to measure their self-esteem and emotional response.

The institutional ethics committees are in charge of monitoring and guaranteeing the physical and emotional well-being of people -submitted to research tests or medical care- in addition to ensuring treatment with respect to their dignity.

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During cellular respiration, cells obtain energy for performing work when...

Answers

During cellular respiration, cells obtain energy for performing work when...

I. energy-rich molecules of glucose are broken down in the cytoplasm, and ATP is produced.

II. enzyme pathways in the mitochondria produce ATP through the process of fermentation.

III. enzyme pathways in the mitochondria produce ATP in a process that requires oxygen.

I, II, and III

II and III only

I and II only

I and III only

Answer:

I and III only

Explanation:

The term cell breath alludes extensively to the creation of ATP through the synthetic breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water. Be that as it may, this procedure has a few segments. Your body utilizes cell breath to change over glucose to ATP and carbon dioxide utilizing oxygen. Glucose travels through three phases in cell breath, glycolysis where glucose is changed over to pyruvate, and two ATP and NADH are made.

The main part of the procedure is performed anaerobically (without oxygen) in the cytoplasm when glucose atoms are changed over to particles of pyruvic corrosive, and ATP is delivered. Pyruvic corrosive atoms at that point proceed to the citrus extract cycle where they are separated into carbon dioxide and electrons, and more ATP is delivered. Cell breath happens in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, with most responses occurring in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes and in the mitochondria of eukaryotes.

Fermentation is a separate process from cellular respiration and is therefore an incorrect answer.

PLEASE HELP QUICKLYYYYYY
A community wants to build an energy source to replace its coal power plant. People want it to be safe and renewable and have the smallest effect on the environment.

a) Choose an energy source for this community. (2 points)


b) Explain why this energy source meets its goals. (2 points)


c) Describe one possible drawback of this energy source. (2 points)

Answers

Answer:

Solar energy and wind energy both can be used

Explanation:

Solar energy as well as wind energy would be the most preferable energy source for this community

Solar energy is the energy that is directly derived from the sun and can be transformed into electrical energy.

Wind energy is obtained by the natural agent known as wind.

these two energy sources are less costly and have lesser environmental impacts and they are very precise and is currently rising in the faster rate and with innovative technical upgradation.

Answer:

Explanation:

a) Choose an energy source for this community. (2 points)

Explanation:

Solar energy as well as wind energy would be the most preferable energy source for this community.

Solar energy is the energy that is directly derived from the sun and can be transformed into electrical energy. For example, the use of solar panels.

Wind energy is obtained by the natural agent known as wind. In the region where the wind is high, the turbines moves very fast, thereby generating electricity. For example, wind mill.


What is a trans fat?
a polyunsaturated fatty acid that has been changed to an unsaturated fatty acid
an unsaturated fatty acid that has been changed to a saturated fatty acid
an unsaturated fatty acid that has been changed to a polyunsaturated fatty acid
a saturated fatty acid that has been changed to an unsaturated fatty acid​

Answers

An unsaturated fatty acid changed to a saturated fatty acid

Answer:

^that answer is correct

Explanation:

The force of gravity on an object is the measure of the object's ________.

mass

weight

Answers

Answer:weight

Explanation:The gravitational force between a mass and the Earth is the object's weight. Mass is considered a measure of an object's inertia, and its weight is the force exerted on the object in a gravitational field. On the surface of the Earth, the two forces are related by the acceleration due to gravity: Fg = mg.

Answer:

Weight

Explanation:

just did the test on usatestprep

what will happen to you if you were cutoff from your peripheral nervous system

Answers

Answer:

Symptoms of PNS damage include problems with sexual function, bladder control, blood pressure regulation, digestion and loss of sensation in the hands and feet. ... The cells can revert back to an immature 'repair' cell due to their plasticity, therefore allowing them to repair damage to the PNS.

how would you describe the relationship between potential energy and kinetic energy? Why does this relationship occur?

Answers

Answer:

Potential energy can be described as the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position. It can be described as the energy possessed by an object which is at rest.

Kinetic energy can be described as the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its state of movement. In simpler words, it is the energy possessed by a moving object.

The potential energy in an object is converted into kinetic energy when any work has to be done by the object. This relationship occurs because one form of energy can be converted into another form of energy.

Answer:

The total energy of the skater is the sum of his potential energy and kinetic energy. As potential energy decreases, kinetic energy increases, and vice versa. This occurs because kinetic energy is the energy of motion and potential energy is stored energy.

Explanation:

Plato answer

A population that is isolated in a remote environment is still able to experience genetic variation How could genetic variation that contributes to evolution occur in such a population

Answers

A mistake in DNA replication before meiosis produces an organism that is better able to outrun predators.

Explanation:

The genetic variation results from the different alleles of a population. The mutation or mistake in DNA replication would cause gene variants which may be beneficial. The variation in the DNA sequence of genome results in variants in small population.

Genetic variation is the cause of natural selection and eventually, evolution takes place with beneficial traits.

It is mentioned in the question that resulting offspring having received the mutant allele could result in better surviving capabilities or phenotypic traits as they are able to outrun predators.

Fertilization _____.

creates a new cell with half the chromosomes of a gamete
creates four identical daughter cells
is process by which gametes are formed
is the union of an egg and sperm cell

Answers

Answer:

Fertilization is the union of an egg and sperm cell, process that occurs in sexual reproduction.

Explanation:

Fertilization or fecundation is a biological process that occurs in the context of sexual reproduction of living beings. It consists of the union of gametes, male (sperm) and female (egg), provided by the parents.

As a result of fertilization, the zygote is produced, a cell that will suffer successive divisions to form the embryo, the beginning of a new individual.

Both reproduction and fertilization are necessary processes for the perpetuation of a species.

The other options do not correspond to fertilization because:

create a new cell with half the chromosomes of a gamete (this process does not occur). Meiosis creates four identical daughter cells .Gametogenesis is the process by which gametes are formed.

Learn more:

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Answer:

Fertilization is-

E. Is the union of an egg and sperm cell

Explanation:

Hope this helps have a wonderful day <3

a liquid heated beyond a certain temperature becomes a ?

Answers

Answer:

I think it's a gas.

Explanation:

Well, I'm pretty sure it's gas. Solid, liquid, gas. A liquid that's too cold becomes solid. Too hot becomes gas.

Name two threats to biodiversity:

Answers

I really hope this helps!


The main dangers worldwide are population growth and resource consumption, climate change and global warming, habitat conversion and urbanisation, invasive alien species, over-exploitation of natural resources and environmental degradation.

Compare the surface-area-to-volume ratios of the three spheres representing cells. The diagram shows three spheres, A (r = 1mm, Surface area = 4π, Volume = 4/3 π); B (r = 2mm, Surface area = 16π, Volume = 32/3 π); C (r = 3mm, Surface area = 36π, Volume = 108/3 π) Which of the three cells, if any, has the greatest surface-area-to-volume ratio? A. The cell with radius 1 B. The cell with radius 2 C. The cell with radius 3 D. All three cells have the same surface-area-to-volume ratio.

Answers

Answer:

A. The cell with radius 1B

Explanation:

The first sphere's volume is 4/3 compared to 32/3 and 108/3

The surface-area-to-volume ratios of the three spheres representing cells. then The cell with radius 1B.

What is surface area?

A three-dimensional object's surface area is the sum of all of its faces. Real-world applications of the concept of surface areas include wrapping, painting, and eventually building things to achieve the best possible design.

An object's surface area is the total area that all of its surfaces occupy. The formulas we will learn in this post make it simple to determine the various surface areas that various 3D shapes in geometry have.

Every geometric shape has a different surface area formula, but the goal of all of them is to determine the total area occupied by all of the objects' faces.

Therefore, The surface-area-to-volume ratios of the three spheres representing cells. then The cell with radius 1B.

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Describe three of the nonspecific defenses against infection.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Nonspecific defenses include physical and chemical barriers, the inflammatory response, and interferons. Physical barriers include the intact skin and mucous membranes. ... An example of such a substance is lysozyme, an enzyme present in tears that destroys the cell membranes of certain bacteria.

How will the changes to the geosphere affect the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere?

Answers

Answer:

That precipitation connects the hydrosphere with the geosphere by promoting erosion and weathering, surface processes that slowly break down large rocks into smaller ones. ... Both the geosphere and hydrosphere provide the habitat for the biosphere, a global ecosystem that encompasses all the living things on Earth.

Explanation:

The space that includes minerals and rocks of earth surfaces found on mountains, shores and valleys are called the geosphere. It comprises abiotic factors.

The hydrosphere is the water surface of the planet and consists of oceans, seas, rivers etc. The water from the hydrosphere precipitates and forms rain that can cause soil erosion on the geosphere.

The atmosphere gets affected by the geosphere as the soil component from the geosphere affects the transpiration and evaporation rate of the atmosphere.

Geospheres affects the biosphere as the activity of surfaces like volcanic eruptions causes pollution in the atmosphere but the soil rich in minerals from volcanoes are good for biosphere life-like plants.

Therefore, the geosphere can affect the atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere in good and bad ways.

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1. What is meant by allele frequency?

Answers

Allele frequency

Explanation:

It is a comparative recurrence of an allele on a genetic locus in a population. It is expressed in terms of percentage, decimal or fraction.The variety of a species population genetics is given by Allele frequency. It represents the incidence of a gene variant in a population. It is calculated by dividing the number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population by the total number of copies of all the alleles at that particular genetic locus in the population. Allele frequency is a reflection of genetic diversity.

What is the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor?
make radiation
control steam
make fuel
control reaction rate

Answers

The function of control rods in  nuclear reactor is to control reaction rate

Explanation:

Control rods are an essential safety system of nuclear reactors. They are employed in nuclear reactors to maintain the "fission rate of uranium or plutonium". Their structures include chemical components such as boron, cadmium, silver, or indium, that are proficient in assimilating many neutrons without themselves fissioning.They form a fundamental element of an "emergency shutdown system "(SCRAM).A control rod is separated from or included into the reactor core to expand or reduce the reactivity of the reactor (increase or decrease the neutron flux). By the variances of the reactivity the changes of neutron power are delivered. This in turn influences the thermal strength of the  nuclear reactor, the volume of steam produced, and henceforth the electricity is produced.

Answer:

control reaction rate

Explanation:

i took the test

The different phases of the Moon refer to
A.
changes in the Moon's rotation.
B.
changes in the Moon's shape.
C.
changes in the Moon's visibility.
D.
changes in seasons on the Moon.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C. Changes in the visibility.

Explanation:

The moon does not change shape it just looks different to us.

Which incident would result in Primary Succession instead of Secondary Succession?
o Forest fire
o
Volcanic eruption
O Mudslide
Next

Answers

The incident would be a volcanic eruption

The incident of Volcanic eruption will result in Primary Succession instead of Secondary Succession. The correct option is B.

What is primary succession?

When a new piece of land is produced or is first exposed, primary succession occurs.

This may occur, for instance, when lava solidifies and forms new rocks or when a glacier recedes and reveals bare rocks. In the initial succession, organisms have to start over.

In primary succession, living organisms first occupy newly exposed or newly created rock.

In secondary succession, a previously inhabited area is disrupted, then recolonized as a result of the disturbance.

The likelihood of primary succession is highest when a lava flow has wiped out all life in a natural community.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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When does glycolysis occur

Answers

Answer:

glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm outside the mitochondria and requires no oxygen.

Explanation:

glucose is broken down into pyruvate, the initial reactions of the pathway produce triose phosphate that produces ATP.

help please!


Which of the following are true of the transfer of thermal energy in the oceans? Select the three correct answers.

A): Energy is absorbed more than radiated near the poles.
B): Energy is radiated more than absorbed near the poles.
C): Energy is radiated more than absorbed near the equator.
D): Energy is absorbed more than radiated near the equator.
E): Energy is carried from the equator to poles in surface currents.
F): Energy is carried from the equator to poles in deep ocean currents.

Answers

Answer:

1. energy is absorbed more than radiated near the equator

2. energy is carried from the equator to poles in surface currents

3. energy is radiated more than absorbed near the poles

Explanation:

Final answer:

Thermal energy in the oceans is absorbed more than radiated near the equator, radiated more than absorbed near the poles, and is carried from the equator towards the poles through surface currents.

Explanation:

The transfer of thermal energy in the oceans is a complex process influenced by various factors such as sunlight intensity, ocean currents, and latitude.

The correct answers to the question are:

B: Energy is radiated more than absorbed near the poles.D: Energy is absorbed more than radiated near the equator.E: Energy is carried from the equator to poles in surface currents.

Near the polar regions, the angle of the sunlight is more oblique, reducing the amount of solar energy absorbed. Hence, these regions radiate more energy back into space than they absorb, maintaining their colder temperatures. On the other hand, at the equator, the sunlight hits the Earth's surface more directly, allowing for greater absorption of energy, which is why it is usually warmer. Additionally, ocean surface currents play a significant role in transferring energy from warmer equatorial waters to the cooler polar regions.

How many calls does the human body have and how many different types are there

Answers

Answer:

You have about 37.2 trillion cells in a human body and 200 different types of cells.

Explanation:

plankton → Arctic cod and Arctic char → seals → polar bear Consider this simple arctic marine food chain. As we travel from plankton to polar bear, only about _________ of the energy in one trophic level gets passed to the next level.

Answers

As we travel from plankton to polar bear, only about ten percent of the energy in one trophic level gets passed to the next level.

Explanation:

The energy flow in an Ecosystem has to aspects which should be considered:

Firstly, the energy flows is unidirectional from producers through herbivores to carnivores.Secondly the energy flow decreases with successive trophic levels.This is due to the fact that some energy is always lost as heat and is used by the organism at that trophic level.

Lindeman's work suggested that about 90% energy is used up at the trophic level and only ten percent of it is transferred to the next level.

This was later formulated as the Ten percent law.

Final answer:

Only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next in an arctic marine food chain, due to energy lost as heat, which limits the number of trophic levels that can be supported.

Explanation:

Consider this simple arctic marine food chain: plankton → Arctic cod and Arctic char → seals → polar bear. As we travel from plankton to polar bear, only about 10% of the energy in one trophic level gets passed to the next level. This is due to the loss of energy as heat between trophic levels in accordance with the second law of thermodynamics. It is significant to note that, after four to six trophic energy transfers, the amount of energy remaining may not be sufficient to support viable populations at a higher trophic level.

This movement of blood is termed , the purpose of which is to service the cells by providing oxygen and nutrients while removing carbon dioxide and other wastes.

Answers

I assume Circulatory system, are there answer choices?

How is the mass of a solid substance affected after it melts?
O A) It increases.
OB) It decreases.
OC) It stays the same.

Answers

Answer:your answer is B it decreases.

Explanation:

it just does

2 Points
What happens during S phase?

Answers

Answer:

S phase is the DNA synthesis phase. During this portion of the cell cycle, the cell replicates its entire complement of DNA. It also forms the centrosome, which is the microtubule-organizing center that will eventually help the cell pull apart the DNA that will be divided between daughter cells.

Answer:

DNA is replicated.

Explanation:

List biological indicators that you could use to find out if an area is polluted.

Answers

Explanation:

Lichen is the best species to determine the pollution of air. They are highly sensitive to pollution and will barely be found growing on trees or rock in regions where the air has been polluted.

Worms are also a good indicators of pollution in the soil. Polluted soils will have very few to no worms.

Small invertebrates like the Caddisfly are used to determine pollution of water. They are very sensitive to water pollution and cannot be found in polluted waters. In addition toads and frogs are rare in polluted waters and air.

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A spherical ball with a volume of 2,304 in.3 is packaged in a box that is in the shape of a cube. The edge length of the box is equal to the diameter of the ball. What is the volume of the box? Which of the following is true of the Tuskegee Syphilis study? A.It was an isolated incident brought to light in 1998. B.It took place for only one year.C. It focused on treating individuals with syphilis using penicillin. 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He applied for a promotion to the chief mechanic on four separate occasions and each time, the promotion was given to a white male with less seniority and less experience. After being denied the promotion for the fifth time, Justin filed a discrimination claim with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC). Justin's employment was terminated by Mr. Madison after the EEOC contacted Mr. Madison concerning the claim. Which of the following will hold true in this scenario? a. Mr. Madison cannot be held liable because Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 covers only employers with more than 50 employees. b. Mr. Madison can use the bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) defense to protect himself against Justins discrimination claim. c. Mr. Madison may be found liable for the violation of the antidiscrimination and the antiretaliation provisions under the Civil Rights Act of 1964. d. 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