A candle is placed in front of a concave spherical mirror of focal length 9.60 cm. The image of the candle is inverted and 3.40 times as large as the candle itself. What is the distance of the candle to the mirror? Show all work and provide units of measure.

The oxidation number is equal to the charge on the ion.N2 is the divalent ion so the charge on N2 is zero as both the nitrogen atom share same number of electron and have same electronegativity. The dipole moment of N2 is zero.Therefore the cxidation number of N2 is 0.

Answer:

the cxidation number of N2 is 0

Explanation:

Final answer:

The force constant of the pogo-stick spring is 3266.67 N/m.

Explanation:

The force constant of a spring can be found using Hooke's Law, which states that the force exerted by a spring is directly proportional to its displacement. The formula to calculate the force constant is: k = F / x, where k is the force constant, F is the force exerted by the spring, and x is the displacement of the spring. In this case, the force exerted by the spring is the weight of the girl standing on the pogo stick, which can be calculated using the formula:

F = mg, where m is the mass of the girl and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Plugging in the values:
F = (40 kg) * (9.8 m/s²) = 392 N

Substituting the values into the formula for the force constant:
k = (392 N) / (0.12 m) = 3266.67 N/m

Red I believe ????????????????????????

As metal heats, the color gets lighter, so it would start off as red, then change to orange, then yellow then white.

Red is the colder color.

Answer:

= 1.0 Ω

Explanation:

Total resistance of resistors is calculated by adding the resistance of each resistor.

In this case, one resistor is 9.0Ω and lets assume the other has R Ω

Therefore; Total resistance is = (9 + R) Ω

From the Ohm's law; R = V/I

Thus;

(9 + R) = 6.0/0.60

9 + R = 10

R = 1 Ω

Therefore, the resistance of the unknown resistor is 1.0 Ω

Answer:

Paper will not stop any radiation.

Copper will stop beta radiation.

Lead will damp the gamma radiation

Explanation:

A Geiger counter is an instrument used to measure the radiation level. There are majorly three types of radiation: Alpha, beta and gamma. Alpha radiations have least energy and gamma radiation have the highest energy. Alpha radiation can be stopped even by a sheet of paper. Beta radiation can be stopped using a sheet of aluminum or copper. To stop the gamma radiation you need lead. Also, the energy of the gamma radiation and thickness of the lead shield will decide how much of the gamma radiation is stopped by the lead sheet.

In the given scenario, when only paper is used neither beta nor gamma radiation will be stopped and Geiger counter will show you the high radiation level. When the source is lined with copper and lead, beta radiation will be stopped and gamma radiation will be damped. So Geiger counter will show reduced level of radiation.

Answer:the answer is d

Explanation:

Answer:

3 seconds

Explanation:

Since h(t) represents the height and t represents the time, we can set the equation equal to 150 to find t.

-16t^2+96t+6=150

Subtract 150 from both sides to set the equation equal to 0, to find the solutions.

-16t^2+96t-144=0

Factor out -16, because all of the terms are divisible by it.

-16(t^2+6t+9)=0

Now we can focus on the terms inside the parenthesis and factor it again.

t^2-6t+9=0

We need to find two value that can be multiplied to get 9 and added to get -6.

-3 and -3 works.

Thus, we get (x-3)(x-3).

Now solve for 0.

x-3=0

x=3

The object reaches its maximum height after 3 seconds.

Answer:

3 seconds

Explanation:

Answer:

6 m/s

Explanation:

At constant acceleration, the final velocity is equal to the initial velocity plus the product of time and acceleration:

v = at + v₀

We know that at t=2, v=12.  And at t=4, v=18.

12 = 2a + v₀

18 = 4a + v₀

We can solve the system of equations for v₀.  If we double the first equation:

24 = 4a + 2v₀

And subtract the second:

24-18 = 4a-4a + 2v₀ - v₀

6 = v₀

The initial velocity is 6 m/s.

The electric current is the electric charge flow that travels through a material, which can be:

Solid (movement of electrons)

Liquid (movement of ions)

Gas (movement of ions or electrons)

Although in general, the movement of charges is taken as electrons.

In this sense, for electric current to exist, the electrons furthest from the nucleus of the atom of a material, will have to detach and circulate freely between the atoms of the body. Being the unit of this flow of current according to the International System of Units the Ampere (A).

Answer:

c.It is producing either a 435-Hz sound or a 441-Hz sound

Explanation:

Beat is a phenomenon of interference that occurs when two waves with slightly different frequency interfere with each other. When this occurs, the frequency of the beats is given by

[tex]f_B = |f_1 -f_2|[/tex] (1)

where f1, f2 are the frequencies of the two waves.

In this problem, we have 6 beats every 2 seconds, so the beat frequency is

[tex]f_B = \frac{6}{2 s}=3 Hz[/tex]

We also know the frequency of one of the two sounds,

[tex]f_1 = 438 Hz[/tex]

So according to eq.(1), this means that the sound of the second trombone can have 2 different frequencies:

[tex]f_2 ' = f_1 + f_B = 438 Hz + 3 Hz = 441 Hz\\f_2 '' = f_1 - f_B = 438 Hz - 3 Hz = 435 Hz[/tex]

Answer:

the answer is B

Explanation:

wave x has the highest hertz making it the answer

1)

1. B

2. H

3. C

4. A

5. F

6. D

7. E

8. G

2) Perpendicular

3) Parallel

Make sure you study this

I'm up to modern physics this was a nice review for me

Answer:

D) Electric power distribution.

Explanation:

Electric power distribution requires high voltages to efficiently transmit electric power. This requires use of a transformer which uses electromagnetic induction.

Answer:

D) Electric power distribution.

Explanation:

As we know that the Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction says that rate of change in magnetic flux linked with a closed conducting loop will induce EMF in the loop.

This induced EMF is used for power production so here when we use it for the production of voltage across conductor.

it is used in AC generator when a coil is rotated at high speed between strong magnetic field of magnets.

This is induced EMF is given by

[tex]EMF = NBA\omega sin(\omega t + \phi)[/tex]

so here correct answer will be

D) Electric power distribution.

Answer: A changing magnetic flux establishes a current in a circuit.

Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction was formulated from the experiments made by him and states that:  

The voltage induced in a closed circuit is directly proportional to the speed with which the magnetic flux that crosses any surface with the circuit as edge changes in time

[tex]\oint\limits_C {\vec{E}}\,d\vec{l}=-\frac{d}{dt} \int\limits_S {\vec{B}} \, d\vec{A}[/tex]

where:  

[tex]\vec{E}[/tex] is the Electric Field  

[tex]d\vec{l}[/tex] is the infinitesimal element of the C contour

[tex]\vec{B}[/tex] is the magnetic field density

[tex]S[/tex] is an arbitrary surface, whose edge is C  

The negative sign indicates the direction of the induced current and refers to the opposition between the fields induced by the magnetic flux and the electromotive force.  

So, it is the change in the magnetic flux that establishes a voltage in the circuit, hence current.

Answer:

Electric and magnetic field waves are oriented at 90 degree angles relative to each other.

Explanation:

Answer:

The force on the faster cart is 3 times the force on the slower cart

Explanation:

The relationship between force exerted on each cart (F), mass of the cart (m) and acceleration (a) is given by Newton's second law:

[tex]F=ma[/tex]

For cart A, we have

[tex]F_A = m a_A[/tex] (1)

For cart B, we have

[tex]F_B = m a_B[/tex] (2)

the problem says that the acceleration of one cart is 3 times the acceleration of the other one, so

[tex]a_B = 3 a_A[/tex]

Substituting into eq.(2):

[tex]F_B = m(3 a_A)=3 (m a_A)[/tex]

So, if we divide (2) by (1), we find the ratio between the two forces:

[tex]\frac{F_B}{F_A}=3[/tex]

so, the force on cart B is 3 times larger the force on cart A.

The direction does the magnetic field in the center of the coil point as shown in the diagram is the left.

The rule states that If the right hand fingers curl round the coil in the direction of the current, then the thumb points in the direction of the magnetic field down the centre of the coil.

It is known that at the centre of the circular loop, The magnetic field lines are straight. The various segment of circular loop carrying current create magnetic field lines in the same direction with in the loop.

Conclusively, The direction of magnetic field at the centre of circular coil is simply known to be perpendicular to the place of the coil.

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The direction of the magnetic field in the center of a coil depends on the direction of the current flowing through the coil.

The direction of the magnetic field in the center of a coil depends on the direction of the current flowing through the coil. According to the right-hand rule, if the current flows clockwise in the coil when viewed from the top, the magnetic field points downward in the center of the coil. Conversely, if the current flows counterclockwise, the magnetic field points upward in the center of the coil. Based on this, the correct option would be C. Down.

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Answer:

C) a potential difference across its ends.

Explanation:

We know , according to Ohm's law, at a constant temperature, current flows through a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage applied.

                   [tex]V=I\times R[/tex]    Here R is resistance provide by circuit.

                   [tex]I=\dfrac{V}{R}.[/tex]

Also, currents flows in the opposite direction of electrons. If current flows then only electron flows.

From Ohm's law , current flows only when their is a potential difference.

Therefore, same goes with electrons as they flow only when current flows electrons.

C) Option is correct.

Electrons will flow in a wire when there is a potential difference (voltage) across its ends (C) or an imbalance of charges in the wire (A). This flow creates a current. Similar to water in a pipe, electrons move from areas of high potential energy to areas of low potential energy.

Electrons flow in a wire when there is a potential difference across its ends. This potential difference, commonly known as voltage, it is kind of like the 'push' that gets the electrons moving.  It's like sending a sled down a hill, the top of the hill has more potential energy, the 'push', than the bottom of the hill. It's similar with electrons and voltage. If there's more voltage at one end of the wire than the other - hence, a potential difference - the electrons will 'slide' down this 'hill', creating a current.

Another way to think about it is water in a pipe. The water (electrons) will flow from a place of high potential energy to a place of low potential energy. So, if there's a higher potential (voltage) at one end of the wire than the other, the electrons will flow to equalize the energy.

An imbalance of charges in the wire can also lead to electron flow, as electrons move from areas of high concentration (negatively charged) to areas of lower concentration.

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Answer:

Costructively

Explanation:

The condition for constructive interference is:

[tex]|d_1 -d_2| = n \lambda[/tex] (1)

where

d1 is the distance of the point from the 1st source

d2 is the distance of the point from the 2nd source

n is an integer number

[tex]\lambda[/tex] is the wavelength of the wave (in this case, 6 meters)

In this problem, we are considering a point which is 10 m from both speakers, so we have:

[tex]d_1 = 10 m\\d_2 = 10 m\\d_1 - d_2 = 0[/tex]

And so eq.(1) is satisfied when n=0, which is an integer. Therefore, constructive interference occurs.

The sound waves from the two speakers, emitting in unison with a wavelength of 6 m, would neither interfere constructively nor destructively at a point 10 m from both speakers. This is because the distance of 10 m does not constitute an integral multiple of the wavelength or an odd multiple of half the wavelength.

In this scenario, two speakers are emitting sounds with an identical wavelength of 6 m in unison. It is important to understand that whether sounds interfere constructively or destructively depends on their phase difference, which in turn is connected to the path lengths the sounds waves have traveled to reach the listening point. In this case, both sound waves are traveling the same distance (10 m) to reach the point in question.

As a principle, constructive interference occurs when the wave peaks (crests) or troughs coincide, which happens when the path difference is an integral multiple of the wavelength. On the other hand, destructive interference occurs when a wave peak coincides with a trough, and this happens when the path difference is an odd multiple of half the wavelength.

In this case, the distance from each speaker to the listening point is 10 m, which is not an integral multiple of the wavelength (6 m) or an odd multiple of half the wavelength (3 m). Therefore, neither perfectly constructive nor destructive interference would occur at a point 10 m from both speakers.

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Answer:

Average emf in the coil: 0.0672 V.

Explanation:

Convert all units to standard SI units.

Consider Faraday's Law of Induction:

[tex]\displaystyle \begin{aligned}\epsilon &= \text{Rate of change in}\;(N\cdot \phi)\\&=\text{Rate of change in}\; (N \cdot (B\cdot A\cdot \cos{\theta}))\end{aligned}[/tex]

where

The coil is circular with a radius of [tex]2.41\times 10^{-2}\;\text{m}[/tex]. As a result,

[tex]A = \pi\cdot r^{2} = \pi\times (2.41\times 10^{-2})^{2} = 1.82467\times 10^{-3}\;\text{m}^{2}[/tex].

Neither [tex]N[/tex] nor [tex]A[/tex] changes in this 0.115 seconds. As a result, the average rate of change in [tex]N\cdot B\cdot A[/tex] is the same as [tex]N\cdot A[/tex] times the average rate of change in [tex]B[/tex].

[tex]\displaystyle \begin{aligned}\text{Average}\;\epsilon &= \text{Average Rate of Change in}\; (N\cdot (B\cdot A\cdot \cos{\theta}))\\&=\text{Average Rate of Change in}\; (N\cdot B\cdot A) \\&= (N\cdot A)\cdot \text{Average Rate of Change in}\;B\\&= 107\times 1.82467\times 10^{-3}\times \frac{91.7\times 10^{-3}- 52.1\times 10^{-3}}{0.115}\\ &=0.0672\;\text{V}\end{aligned}[/tex].

All numbers in the question come with three sig. fig. Keep more sig. fig. than that in the calculation but round the final answer to three sig. fig.

The magnitude of the average emf, in millivolts, which is induced in the coil during this time interval is approximately 37.93 mV.

To find the magnitude of the average emf induced in a coil when the magnetic field strength changes, we use Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. The formula given is:

EMF = N x (\(∆B/\u2206t\)) x A

Where:

First, calculate the area of the coil:

A = \(\pi r² \) = \(\pi \times (0.0241)²\) = \(\pi \times 0.00058081 m²\)

Then, calculating the EMF:
EMF = 107 x (39.6 \times 10⁻³ T / 0.115 s) x (\(\pi \times 0.00058081 m²\))

Upon calculation, you find that the average induced emf is approximately 37.93 millivolts (mV).

Answer:

[tex]1.69\cdot 10^{10}J[/tex]

Explanation:

The total energy of the satellite when it is still in orbit is given by the formula

[tex]E=-G\frac{mM}{2r}[/tex]

where

G is the gravitational constant

m = 525 kg is the mass of the satellite

[tex]M=5.98\cdot 10^{24}kg[/tex] is the Earth's mass

r is the distance of the satellite from the Earth's center, so it is the sum of the Earth's radius and the altitude of the satellite:

[tex]r=R+h=6370 km +575 km=6945 km=6.95\cdot 10^6 m[/tex]

So the initial total energy is

[tex]E_i=-(6.67\cdot 10^{-11})\frac{(525 kg)(5.98\cdot 10^{24} kg)}{2(6.95\cdot 10^6 m)}=-1.51\cdot 10^{10}J[/tex]

When the satellite hits the ground, it is now on Earth's surface, so

[tex]r=R=6370 km=6.37\cdot 10^6 m[/tex]

so its gravitational potential energy is

[tex]U = -G\frac{mM}{r}=-(6.67\cdot 10^{-11})\frac{(525 kg)(5.98\cdot 10^{24}kg)}{6.37\cdot 10^6 m}=-3.29\cdot 10^{10} J[/tex]

And since it hits the ground with speed

[tex]v=1.90 km/s = 1900 m/s[/tex]

it also has kinetic energy:

[tex]K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2=\frac{1}{2}(525 kg)(1900 m/s)^2=9.48\cdot 10^8 J[/tex]

So the total energy when the satellite hits the ground is

[tex]E_f = U+K=-3.29\cdot 10^{10}J+9.48\cdot 10^8 J=-3.20\cdot 10^{10} J[/tex]

So the energy transformed into internal energy due to air friction is the difference between the total initial energy and the total final energy of the satellite:

[tex]\Delta E=E_i-E_f=-1.51\cdot 10^{10} J-(-3.20\cdot 10^{10} J)=1.69\cdot 10^{10}J[/tex]

Explanation:

1D motion is motion in only one direction.  To put it simply, it's motion along a line.  For example, a train on a straight track has 1D motion.

2D motion is motion in two directions.  A good example of this is a projectile launched at an angle.  It has both vertical motion and horizontal motion.

One dimensional motion is restricted to just a line. Thing about an object that can only travel on the x-axis. It's displacement, velocity and acceleration can be defined by just single numbers. The sign of that number can indicate the direction since there are only two directions.

On the other hand, two dimensional motion can happen on a plane. Think about an object that can travel anywhere on a Cartesian plane (normal graphing paper with x-axis and y-axis). This object's displacement, velocity and acceleration need to defined by two numbers and is done so usually in vectors. For example the position can be (3, 5).

Answer:

C) could be as small as 2.0 m, or as large as 12 m.

Explanation:

The magnitude of the vector given by the sum of the two vectors depends on the directions of the vectors.

In fact, we have two extreme conditions:

- when the two vectors have same directions, then the magnitude of their sum is equal to the sum of the magnitudes of the two vectors:

[tex]R=A+B=5.0 m + 7.0 m = 12.0 m[/tex]

- When the two vectors have opposite directions, the magnitude of their sum is equal to the difference between the magnitudes of the two vectors:

[tex]R=|A-B|=|5.0 m-7.0m|=2.0 m[/tex]

In all other intermediate cases, where the two vectors are neither parallel nor anti-parallel, the magnitude of the vector sum changes according to the components of the two vectors, and so it will span within this range of minimum length (2.0 m) and maximum length (12.0 m).

The magnitude of the resulting vector from the addition of two displacement vectors can range from a minimum value of their subtracted magnitudes to a maximum of their added magnitudes, depending on their alignment.

When adding two vectors, the sum depends on their directions. If the vectors are in the same direction when added together, then their magnitudes will simply add up, which in this case gives us 12 m (5.0 m + 7.0 m). However, if the vectors are in opposite directions, we'd subtract the smaller magnitude from the larger. Here, that would be 7.0 m - 5.0 m, resulting in a magnitude of 2.0 m. So, the resultant displacement could range anywhere from 2.0 m (if completely opposite) to 12 m (if directly aligned).

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Answer:

electromagnetic waves. (D)

Explanation:

I got it right on the test.

also the lines are electromagnetic waves (if that makes since)

hope this helps! :)

Answer:

0.103 m/s to the south

Explanation:

The total momentum of the launcher+ball system must be conserved before and after the launch, so we can write:

[tex]p_i = p_f\\0 = m_L v_L + m_B v_B[/tex]

where

[tex]p_i =0[/tex] is the total initial momentum (before the launch)

[tex]m_L = 20 kg[/tex] is the mass of the launcher

[tex]v_L[/tex] is the velocity of the launcher after the launch

[tex]m_B = 0.057 kg[/tex] is the mass of the ball

[tex]v_B = +36 m/s[/tex] is the velocity of the ball after the launch (we take the north direction as positive)

Solving for [tex]v_L[/tex], we find

[tex]v_L = -\frac{m_B v_B}{m_L}=-\frac{(0.057 kg)(+36 m/s)}{20 kg}=-0.103 m/s[/tex]

and the negative sign means that the direction is south.

Answer:

The SI unit for pressure is Pascal (Pa) I believe :)

Mark brainliest if correct please!

CONDENSATION is the process by which water vapor (gas) in the atmosphere turns into water (liquid state). It is the opposite of EVAPORATION.Cool temperatures are essential for condensation to happen, because as long as the temperature in the atmosphere is high, it can hold the water vapor and delay condensation. So the temperature in condensation rises.

Answer:

[tex]1.0313\cdot 10^{12}[/tex]

Explanation:

The net charge is given by the sum of the charges of the protons and of the electrons:

[tex]Q=N_p q_p + N_e q_e[/tex]

where we have

[tex]Q=-5.00 nC=-5.00\cdot 10^{-9}C[/tex] is the net charge

[tex]N_p = 1.0\cdot 10^{12}[/tex] is the number of protons

[tex]q_p = +1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C[/tex] is the charge of one proton

[tex]N_e[/tex] is the number of electrons

[tex]q_e = -1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C[/tex] is the charge of one electron

Solving the equation for [tex]N_e[/tex], we find the number of electrons:

[tex]N_e = \frac{Q-N_p q_p}{q_e}=\frac{-5.0\cdot 10^{-9}C-(1.0\cdot 10^{12})(1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C)}{-1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C}=1.0313\cdot 10^{12}[/tex]

The speck of dust has 1.0312 x 10¹² electrons. This was calculated by first finding the number of extra electrons required to achieve the negative charge, and then adding this to the original number of protons.

Given the net charge of the speck of dust is −5.00 nc or -5.00 × 10^-9 Coulombs, and we are provided with a 1.0000×10¹² protons in it. Given that we know the fundamental charge e is equal to +1.602 x 10-¹⁹ C for a proton and -1.602 x 10-¹⁹ C for an electron respectively.

Since protons are positively charged and electrons are negatively charged, the charge of an atom or in this case, a speck of dust, is determined by the number of protons and electrons. Considering the charge of one electron, to find the number of electrons, we can use the following formula:

nr of electrons = net charge/charge of one electron

Just plug the values into the formula and solve:

nr of electrons = -5.00 × 10⁻⁹ C /  -1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C/e⁻ = 3.12×10¹⁰ electrons

However, we started with 1.0000 × 10¹² protons, therefore, to gain a negative charge, the speck of dust must have more electrons than protons:

Total electrons = nr of protons + nr of extra electrons .

This gives us:  = 1.0000 × 10¹² protons + 3.12×10¹⁰ electrons = 1.0312 x 10¹² electrons.

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Answer :D

Some characteristics shared by all electromagnetic waves are that they all travel at the same speed of light and their own transmission does not need medium. These wave types can also travel through empty spaces

It is D.They have the same speed

a) Zinc (work function: 4.3 eV)

The equation for the photoelectric effect is:

[tex]E=\phi + K[/tex] (1)

where

[tex]E=\frac{hc}{\lambda}[/tex] is the energy of the incident photon, with

h = Planck constant

c = speed of light

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = wavelength

[tex]\phi[/tex] = work function of the metal

K = maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted

The stopping potential (V) is the potential needed to stop the photoelectrons with maximum kinetic energy: so, the corresponding electric potential energy must be equal to the maximum kinetic energy,

[tex]eV=K[/tex]

So we can rewrite (1) as

[tex]E=\phi + eV[/tex]

where we have:

[tex]\lambda=200 nm = 2\cdot 10^{-7} m[/tex]

V = 1.93 V

e is the electron charge

First of all, let's find the energy of the incident photon:

[tex]E=\frac{hc}{\lambda}=\frac{(6.63\cdot 10^{-34}Js)(3\cdot 10^8 m/s)}{2\cdot 10^{-7}m}=9.95\cdot 10^{-19} J[/tex]

Converting into electronvolts,

[tex]E=\frac{9.95\cdot 10^{-19}J}{1.6\cdot 10^{-19} J/eV}=6.22 eV[/tex]

And now we can solve eq.(1) to find the work function of the metal:

[tex]\phi = E-eV=6.22 eV-1.93 eV=4.29 eV[/tex]

so, the metal is most likely zinc, which has a work function of 4.3 eV.

b) The stopping potential is still 1.93 V

Explanation:

The intensity of the incident light is proportional to the number of photons hitting the surface of the metal. However, the energy of the photons depends only on their frequency, so it does not depend on the intensity of the light. This means that the term E in eq.(1) does not change.

Moreover, the work function of the metal is also constant, since it depends only on the properties of the material: so [tex]\phi[/tex] is also constant in the equation. As a result, the term (eV) must also be constant, and therefore V, the stopping potential, is constant as well.