Answer:C) Minimal but discernible increase in size over the past 6 months.
Explanation:
Irrespective of the presence and length of a lesion, any discernible alteration in size or other characteristics (such as color or regularity of borders) requires further evaluation. Since its start, no change in size but moderate sporadic pruritus over the last 2 years is wrong. While any skin lesion may develop into malignancy, a long-standing, essentially unchanged lesion carries a very low probability of malignancy. Since the beginning no evolution in size but uniformly darkly pigmented color is wrong. Although dark lesions are sometimes of concern, lesions should be assessed specifically for color variation, in particular blue and black mixed with white and red(Which represents inflammatory processes and melanoma scarring characteristics). It is wrong to have identical pink tan lesions in the exposed areas of the skin, including the face and hands. In general, skin cancer is characterized by an initial focus of malignancy with distal metastases on organs other than the skin; multiple similar skin findings that do not meet the criteria in the mnemonic ABCDE‐EFG (Asymmetry, Border Irregularity, Color Variations, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolving, Elevated, Solid, Growing) are more likely to be benign. The proximal position is incorrect, that is to say, over the bicep rather than the distal limb. Proximal or distal location has no effect on the risk of malignancy.
You are testing a hypothesis that salamanders disappeared from a flower bed because an invasive ant species drove them away. To test this hypothesis you make 40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. After a month you count the number of salamanders in each flower bed.
Answer:
Salamanders are being driven away from the flower beds by the invasive ants specie because the two organism have hostile relationship to each other and can not coexist.
To test the hypothesis in the question, check the explanation column below
Explanation:
40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. Leave these for three weeks
Results:
At the end of the third week, it will be observed that the flower beds that contain the invasive ants species will no longer contain the salamanders, WHILE the 20 remaining flower beds where the ants were not placed will still contain the salamanders.
Conclusion from this hypothesis is that invasive ants specie and salamanders can not coexist
The process by which people learn from one another, adopting some part of the other’s way of life, is referred to as
a) discovery.
b) reformulation.
c) cultural diffusion.
d) technological innovation.
Answer:
I think the answer is C. Cultural Diffusion
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A policyowner has a health insurance policy with his wife listed as the primary beneficiary. He would like to change the primary beneficiary to his sister. Which of the following is true?
Answer:
Unless the policy designated the current beneficiary as irrevocable, the policy owner can make the change at any time.
Explanation:
A primary beneficiary is simply the person you have selected in your health insurance policy to be the one to be called upon to receive any benefits. In the case of a health insurance policy, changing primary beneficiary can be done at any time the owner deems necessary. The only circumstance in which the primary beneficiary is irrevocable is only if it is stated in the policy.
While caring for a child who will be undergoing a lumbar puncture, the nurse explains the procedure to the infant’s mother. Which statement by the mother would indicate a need for further education?
Answer:
"I will cradle her in my arms after the procedure for at least 30 minutes."
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most common statement that would indicate a need for further education would be "I will cradle her in my arms after the procedure for at least 30 minutes." This is because after a lumbar puncture the child will need to be on bed-rest (usually in a sideways position) for up to 4 hours during the recovery period.
The mother needing further education likely misunderstands the safety, purpose, and diagnostic process of lumbar puncture. Education should encompass the reasons for choosing the lumbar region and the significance of lab tests beyond CSF's appearance.
Explanation:The lumbar puncture is a medical procedure performed to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons. It is safely conducted in the lower lumbar region of the vertebral column, between the lumbar vertebrae L1 and L5, where there is a reduced risk of damaging the spinal cord. The CSF obtained should be clear, and if it is cloudy, it could indicate an infection, which would require further testing to identify any microorganisms.
A statement by the mother which may indicate the need for further education could be one that misunderstands the purpose of the procedure, its relative safety, or the potential implications of the CSF findings. For example, a mother who believes that the procedure could be easily performed at a higher level of the spine without risk, or who expects immediate diagnostic results from the appearance of the CSF alone, would need additional information.
Continued educational support for the mother could include explaining why the lumbar region is chosen over other spine areas due to the absence of the spinal cord in the lower lumbar levels, as well as emphasizing the importance of lab tests for an accurate diagnosis beyond visual examination of the CSF.
A frantic neighbor is knocking at your door. She says that she cannot wake her sleeping roommate. She remembers that her roommate took some pills about 2 hours ago, but she is not sure what they were or where her roommate keeps them. You enter and see a person lying face-up on the couch but not moving. You want to help. How do you respond?
Answer:
-Check for airway passage blockage if none
-Size the scene right up.
-Shout-tap-shout. The response and respiration check should be at least 5 seconds but not more than 10 seconds.
-If no injuries are found during head-to-toe checks while waiting for EMS to arrive, put the person in a recovery position on his side.
The emergency protocols are necessary and can be life-saving for the victim. The steps of the protocols should be followed sequentially.
The responder should follow the steps until the EMS arrives as:
The responder should check for any airway blockage and breathing pattern and pulse of the victim.Size up the scene, which means that the responder should ensure all the resources are available, the victim is in the safe zone, and update the EMS about the whole situation.Follow the shout-tap-shout protocol, in which the respiration and response of the victim should be checked for at least 5 seconds. If no visible injuries or clots are observed on the body, the responder should put the victim on the side in the recovery position until the EMS arrives.
Thus, the responder should follow the emergency protocol and call 911 to save the victim.
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An experienced nurse is mentoring a graduate nurse and critiquing the graduate’s shift handoff. Which statement requires clarification?
Answer:
The client reports a pain level of 8. She has a low pain tolerance.
Explanation:
The graduate nurse has little understanding of making of report of occurrences and their is an ambiguity in the report making it difficult for the experience nurse to understand the information the graduate is passing.
Answer:
The client has a low pain tolerance
Explanation:
This is because she reported a pain level of eight.
Although the pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland of the body, the hypothalamus exerts control over the pituitary gland. How does the hypothalamus control both the anterior and posterior pituitary functioning?
Answer:
The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.
Explanation:
The pituitary gland has two parts—the anterior lobe and posterior lobe—that have two very separate functions. The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.
The hypothalamus secrete releasing hormone that regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary gland.
What is hypothalamus?It is located at the base of brain.It secrets hormones that regulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland, temperature and homeostasis.What is releasing hormones?"Releasing hormones are peptide hormones, which are produced within the hypothalamus."These stimulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland to release their hormone.What is anterior pituitary gland?This is the front lobe of pituitary gland.It produces 6 hormones: (1) prolactin, (2) growth hormone, (3) adrenocorticotropic hormone, (4) luteinizing hormone, (5) follicle-stimulating hormone, and (6) thyroid-stimulating hormone.What is posterior pituitary gland?It produces two hormones: vasopressin and oxytocin.This hormones are produced when a message is send by hypothalamus.Hence, the hypothalamus secretes hormone which stimulates the pituitary gland.
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A nurse is teaching a pre-natal group about the benefits of breast-feeding. The nurse determines teaching has been effective based on which statement?
Answer:Hello, your question is not complete. Nonetheless, check explanation section to learn one or two things so that you will have more understanding and be able to solve similar questions.
Explanation:
A prenatal class is for mostly for pregnant women, and classes are held to educate them(pregnant women) about things to expect during their pregnancy period, during labour and child birth, and during their early Parenthood which include breastfeeding.
Breastfeeding is a type of nutrition process in which infants/babies are fed with milk from the mammary gland of the mother. The milk from the mother's breast is sterile and more nutrients than any other baby foods.
Since the class is all about the BENEFITS OF BREASTFEEDING, the nurse taking the Pre-natal class will be happy that his or her class in effective if the pregnant women are able to understand the importance of breastfeeding and can answer questions relating to breastfeeding. For example, if the pregnant women understand that breastfeeding increases resistance to infections in babies.
What is the name for the computerized health information system health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests?
Answer:
The name for the computerized health information system health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests is Clinical decision support system.
Explanation:
The Clinical decision support system (CDSS) is an artificial intelligence that was designed to provide doctors with help in decision-making matters, focusing on the use of medical knowledge to be able to give valuable advice and reach the correct diagnosis and treatment of diseases with the input of patient data.
"The correct term for the computerized health information system that health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests is an Electronic Health Record (EHR) system.
An Electronic Health Record (EHR) system is a digital version of a patient's paper chart. EHRs are real-time, patient-centered records that make information available instantly and securely to authorized users. Health care providers use EHRs to monitor and track the medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results of their patients. EHR systems are designed to share information with other health care providers and organizations such as laboratories, specialists, medical imaging facilities, pharmacies, emergency facilities, and school and workplace clinics so they contain information from all clinicians involved in a patient's care.
EHRs can enhance the quality of health care by improving the accuracy and clarity of medical records, facilitating quick access to patient records for more coordinated, efficient care, and reducing the potential for errors in prescription and treatment. They also allow for the integration of evidence-based guidelines at the point of care, which can support health care professionals in making decisions for their patients. Additionally, EHRs can help with the management of chronic diseases by providing tools for tracking and reminders for preventive care.
In summary, an EHR system is a comprehensive health information system that supports the management of patient care, including referrals, treatment plans, and tests, across various health care settings."
Select the correct answer. Dr. Willard is performing evaluations of the physicians in the department of pediatrics. To what type of team does Dr. Willard belong? A. administrative team B. coordinating team C. core team D. support team
Answer
I think its A hope this helps
Explanation:
Answer:
A
Explanation:
#PLATOGANG 5/5
A 36-month-old presents for a well child visit. The parents would like to know if the child's development is progressing approximately ________.
Answer:
A 36-month-old presents for a well child visit. The parents would like to know if the child's development is progressing approximately:
to its developmental milestones.
Explanation:
The developmental milestones are specific behaviors or physical skills expected from infants from 0 to 3, and children from 3 to 6, at that specific growth stage, which features health and nutritional status, but although they are different for each age range, there is a normal range for each child to reach them, therefore it is important to measure and monitor them at regular intervals to register their progress. Rolling over, crawling, walking, and talking are all considered milestones.
A 30 to 36 month old toddler likely should be able to take part in group activities that include running, galloping, crawling, rolling over, and twirling around, walking on a narrow beam, putting one foot in front of the other for a few steps and climbing the ladder of a slide at a jungle gym.
Josiah has formed a theory that consumption of sugar makes it difficult for people to fall asleep within one hour. He has designed a study where his hypothesis is that the more sugar people eat, the longer it will take before they can go to sleep. What should Josiah do next?
a. Formulate a Research Question
b. Use Descriptive Statistics
c. Analyze the date that he has collected
d. Test his hypothesis
Answer:
Test his hypothesis.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis gives the detailed information about the particular phenomena. The hypothesis is generally made on the observation of the scientists.
The scientific hypothesis needs to be explained by the scientific tests if need to become a scientific hypothesis. If the Josiah has a doubt in her theory, she must test her hypothesis again and again so that the new correct theory can be made.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
A healthcare professional creating new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience, education, and input from others is:
A. Using feedback
B. Processing knowledge
C. Disseminating knowledge
D. Acquiring knowledge
E. Generating knowledge
The correct answer would be option E, Generating Knowledge.
A healthcare professional creating new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience, education and input from others is Generating Knowledge.
Explanation:
When someone acquires knowledge about something and use it for the purpose of information, this process is called as Generating Knowledge.
When a healthcare professional gathers or acquires knowledge which is based upon the experience, education and any sort of input form others, he is actually generating knowledge. He may either change the knowledge or evolve new knowledge based on the acquired information. This process is called Generating Knowledge.
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Which drug is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a dietary adjunct to reduce triglyceride levels greater than 500 mg/dL?
Explanation:
Drug, approved by the Food and Drug Administration as dietary adjunct is
Determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian and drag the breakfast to its appropriate classification.
Answer:
VEGAN: oatmeal made with soy milk and blueberries
LACTOVEGETARIAN: whole wheat toast with melted cheese and a glass orange juice
LACTOOVOVEGETARIAN: omelet made with two eggs, shredded cheese, and peppers.
Explanation:
Vegan is the person who follows a dietary regimen that is characterized by completely excluding all foods of animal origin, including products that involve an animal process, such as honey or eggs from the daily food list.
The lacto-vegetarian diet is another alternative to the vegan (or vegetarian) diet. This variant allows you to add milk and dairy products to the daily menu.
Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diet: The least strict vegetarian diet
The ovo-lacto-vegetarian diet is the alternative with less restrictions if you are looking to become a vegetarian. The milk and eggs included in this diet provide you with the necessary proteins that your body needs.
Final answer:
To classify a breakfast as either vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we examine the inclusion of dairy products and eggs. Vegans eat strictly plant-based, lactovegetarians consume dairy but not eggs, and lactoovovegetarians include both dairy products and eggs in their diet.
Explanation:
To determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we must look at the ingredients included in the meal. A vegan diet excludes all animal products including dairy and eggs. A lactovegetarian diet includes dairy products but no eggs. Lastly, a lactoovovegetarian diet includes both dairy products and eggs.
If the breakfast contains dairy products such as cheese or milk but no eggs, it is appropriate for lactovegetarian and lactoovovegetarian diets. If the breakfast includes eggs, with or without dairy products, it is suitable for lactoovovegetarians. Finally, if the breakfast contains neither dairy nor eggs and solely plant-based ingredients, it is suitable for vegans.
When analyzing a vegetarian or vegan diet for health, it's important to consider the inclusion of foods fortified with nutrients of concern such as vitamins B12, D, calcium, omega-3 fatty acids, and choline to maintain nutrient adequacy.
The _________ helps us walk a straight line without stumbling or leaning forward; it continually communicates with the muscles to coordinate placement, movement, and balance.
Answer:
What is the brain.
Explanation:
ill take body parts for 600.
Also could i have brainliest ill help on any question you need :)
Patricia recently visited a nutritionist who, after examining her weight and height, informed her that her body mass index is 21. This places Patricia in the _____ weight category.
Answer:
normal weight category
Explanation:
Body mass index (BMI) -
It refers to the value concluded from the value of weight and height of a person , it basically gives the composition of the body , is referred to as the Body mass index (BMI) .
The value of BMI is calculated by the weight of the person divided by the square of the height .
Hence, the unit of BMI comes out to be Kg / m² .
The values of BMI is characterized as ,
BMI under 18.5 Kg / m² - underweight category .BMI range 18.5 Kg / m² - 25 Kg / m² - normal weight category . BMI above 30 Kg / m² - obese weight category .Hence, from the question,
Patricia is in the normal weight category .
Answer:
The correct answer is - normal body weight.
Explanation:
BMI or body mass index is the measurement of the high body fatness by the calculating it from the weight and height of an individual. It is calculated by the weight of an individual in kilograms divided by the height square in meters.
BMI can be assessed on the base of the weight categories that may indicator for the health issue that may rise. According to the BMI categories 18.5 to 25 considered as normal.
BMI ranges are:
Underweight : under 18.5 kg/m2,
Normal weight : 18.5 to 25,
Overweight : 25 to 30, and
obese : over 30.
Thus, the correct answer is - normal body weight.
What is the problem with doing little or no flexibility exercises with lots of muscle strengthening exercises
Answer:
Doing little or no flexibility exercise with lots of muscle strengthening exercises may lead to a condition called "muscle-bound."
Explanation:
Flexibility exercise is very crucial especially when you are doing endurance or strength exercises. This will enhance your body's range of motion because the body will be more flexible. This means that you have more freedom when it comes to your movements. Examples of this are yoga and pilates.
If you are doing a lot of muscle strengthening exercises without or with little flexibility exercise, then this may result to a "muscle-bound" condition. This means that your muscles are overly developed, thus it becomes harder for you to move normally. This lessens your range of motion.
The more you do the strength training, the more the muscles in your body elongate, resulting to a more tightly pulled connective tissue. This will then restrict your body's flexibility or range of motion.
To ensure optimal ____ health, we must feed our bodies nutritiously, exercise them regularly, avoid harmful behaviors and substances, watch for early signs of sickness, and protect ourselves from accidents.
Answer:
Physical.
Explanation:
The individual should keep the body and mind fit to stay away from the disease and the stress condition. The proper health of the individual increase the age as well as the social status of an individual.
The optimal physical health includes the state of the wellness of an individual. The optimal health can be developed by the proper yoga and exercise. The balanced diet with the roper nutritious and no inhalation of harmful chemical substance helps in the development of the optimal physical health.
Thus, the answer is physical.
The nurse has just attended a seminar on concepts of cultural diversity. Which statement made by the nurse would require further education?
Answer:
Culture cannot be influenced, and you are born with your culture.
Explanation:
Each religion and country has its own culture. The culture determines the social customs, religions, laws and ethics about the particular state. The culture makes the country unique with the other country.
The lots of variation and diversity has been found in the culture of the different state or country. The individual has their own culture that can influence them and makes them familiar with their unique identities. The individual born with their special culture.
You are providing first aid to a person who appears to have suffered a stroke and is paralyzed on the right side. Based on his anatomy, the stroke likely occurred in the left side of his brain?
1. True
2.False
Why is it impossible to taste substances with a dry tongue
Answer:
BECAUSE TASTANTS DISSOLVE IN SALIVA, ENTERS THE TASTE PORES, THIS CAUSES MECHANISMS TO MAKE THE TASTE CELLS TO DEPOLARIZE, THIS HELPS START THE WAY WE PROCESS TASTE. WITHOUT SALIVA THE BEGINNING STEPS OF TASTE WILL NOT BE ACTIVATED.
Explanation:
A nurse in the surgical admitting unit is preparing a client for elective coronary artery bypass surgery. Which statement by the client should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider (HCP)?
The options are:
"I haven't had anything to eat or drink since 8 PM yesterday."
"I took my prasugrel this morning with just a tiny sip of water."
"I'm really nervous about this surgery."
"It always takes several attempts to start my IV."
Answer:
"I took my prasurgel this morning with just a tiny sip of water."
Explanation:
Prasugrel is an antiplatelet medication that should be discontinued by the patient at least 5 to 7 days before the operation. This could cause bleeding, particularly "intraoperative or postoperative bleeding." Other symptoms include headache, nausea and upset stomach. This can also cause "serious bleeding." So, if the patient took prarugrel in the morning, it is best to inform the health care provider. In such situation, the operation will most likely be postponed.
Thus, this explains the answer.
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fats. They also recommend decreasing the intake of sodium. Which foods provide most of the sodium in our daily diets?
Answer:
The foods that provide most of the sodium in our daily diets are the ultraprocessed items, snacks, some ready sausages, industrial soups and most types of cheese.
Explanation:
Some of these ultraprocessed products are in need of sodium because it contributes to its maintenance. Sodium is also used in order to make food more tasty. In the case of cheese, sodium content is a result of its own making process. These is an aspect that gains importance because the consumption of exaggerated amounts of sodium might help in increasing blood pressure and cardiovascular diseases.
A 14-year-old girl presents with right thigh pain that has been going on for the last month. She recalls being kicked in the leg during soccer practice before her symptoms started. She was last seen in the ED two weeks ago and was diagnosed with a muscle contusion. On exam there is a mass palpable over the anterior distal thigh. X-ray of the femur shows a distal femoral diaphyseal lesion with cortical destruction and periosteal reaction with high suspicion for osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true regarding this disease
Answer:
Taking into account that the alternatives to this case are:
a. Blunt trauma is associated with the pathogenesis of osteosarcoma.
b. Ionizing radiation for childhood cancer is a risk factor for osteosarcoma.
c. Osteosarcoma most often involves the axial squeleton followed by the long bones.
d. Pathologic fracture is a common presenting sign
The right answer is the option B
Explanation:
In previous medical analysis and research of the disease, sarcomas were one of the first solid cancers to be found connected with ionizing radiation exposure. The risk of both bone and soft tissue sarcomes are very high after high-dose fractionated radiation (10+Gy) in childhood.
As supervisor of the cancer registry, you report the registry's annual caseload to administration. The most efficient way to retrieve this information would be to use
A. patient abstracts.B. accession register.C. patient index.D. follow-up files.
Answer:
.B. accession register
Explanation:
Registration is a term that originates in the Latin word regestum. It is about the action and the consequences of registering, a verb that refers to observing or inspecting something carefully. To register is also to write down or record a certain data in a document or paper.
In this case, being able to access the registry is the easiest and most efficient way to recover the information.
The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that:______.(1) reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells(2) increases the rate at which carbon dioxide is carried to the muscle cells(3) results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells(4) slows the destruction of enzymes involved in respiration of muscle cells
Answer:
(3) results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells
Explanation:
When exercising, Oxygen is introduced to the muscle cells via the Red Blood Cells. Hemoglobin which is carried by the Red Blood Cells binds with these oxygen to to supply the muscle cells with oxyenated blood. Thus, as blood flows into the muscle cell during exercise, there is increase in the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells.
On the otherhand, Carbondioxide is not carried to the muscles cells but it is diffused out of the bloodstream as bicarbonate ion (HCO⁻₃).
The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that: results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells. Thi s is becuase, Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a compound with high potential energy. The synthesize ATP molecules in the muscle cells is gotten from complex molecules such as carbohydrate, proteins and fats. So during exercise, there are more production of more ATP in the muscle cells to assist in the degradation of carbohydrate, proteins and fats that give rise to pyruvate, amino acids and fatty acids respectively.
The change in heart rate during exercise reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells.
Explanation:The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells. This is because exercise increases the demand for oxygen in the muscles, and the heart rate increases to deliver more oxygen-rich blood to the muscles. This adaptation allows the muscles to receive the oxygen they need to produce ATP and continue functioning during exercise.
During exercise, the demand for oxygen in muscle cells increases, and the cardiovascular system responds to meet this demand. As you engage in physical activity, your heart rate increases to pump more blood, and consequently more oxygen, to the muscles.
The increase in heart rate is part of the body's response to deliver oxygen and nutrients to working muscles efficiently. This process enhances the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, ensuring that the muscles receive an adequate supply to support the increased metabolic demands during exercise.
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Compared with Type B personalities, Type A people are more likely to experience:_____. A. coronary heart disease. B. low blood pressure. C. increased release of lymphocytes. D. low blood sugar levels.
Answer:
The correct option is A: Coronary heart disease
Explanation:
Cardiologists Friedman and Rosenman discovered what is considered Type A behavior. In one of the research conducted by these Cardiologists, they showed that people who had the Type A personality have a higher risk of developing high blood pressure and heart disease than people with Type B personality. Although it was original coined Type A personality by these aforementioned Cardiologists, the term has now been conceptualized to be called Type A Behavior Pattern.
Compared to high school seniors, college students report a roughly equivalent annual prevalence rate in the use of illicit drugs in general, which is about ____________.
Complete Question:
Compared to high school seniors, college students report a roughly equivalent annual prevalence
rate in the use of illicit drugs in general, which is about ____________.
A. 26 percent
B. 36 percent
C. 46 percent
D. 48 percent
Answer: 36%
Explanation: Research had shown that illegal drugs consumption has been a great problem in American communities for more than three (3) decades.
Research shows high consumption of illegal drugs among the youth age bracket.
College students account for 36% illegal drugs consumption when compared to high school. Many factors initiates this harmful action. Ranging from peer group, economic and social status etc.
The mother of a 10-year-old child diagnosed with rubella asks what can be done to help her child feel better during her illness. What information can be provided?
Answer:
The correct answer is - Encourage rest and relaxation
Explanation:
Rubella is an infection that is not severe or infects others normally, There is no external care needed other than the supportive care. Medications are also limited to generic analgesics and antipyretics.
Rubella patients are advised to rest and relax. Motion and movements are not limited so the range of the motion is not needed to include in the advised. Antiviral and antibacterial medication or therapy can be included too.
Thus, the correct answer is - Encourage rest and relaxation.