Answer:
The three cell cycle checkpoints are:
G1 CheckpointG2 CheckpointSpindle CheckpointExplanation:
Cell Cycle Checkpoints:
Cell cycle checkpoints are regulatory points at which the current state of the cell is assessed to determine whether the cell cycle can continue or not.
The G1 checkpoint confirms the cells entry into the mitotic phase; it commits the cells for division. If a cell passes G1 checkpoint, it will continue in the cell cycle until it divides into two daughter cells. This checkpoint checks DNA damage, the presence of adequate nutrients and suitable cell size. The G2 checkpoint operates at the G2/M transition. It checks DNA damage and assesses whether DNA has completely and successfully replicated during the S-phase. If DNA damage is detected, DNA repair mechanisms are activated.The spindle checkpoint assesses whether all chromatids have successfully attached to the spindle fibers. This is a crucial checkpoint as the integrity of cell division depends on the correct number of chromosomes received by each daughter cell.When individuals of the same species are reproductively isolated, genetic differences may accumulate in sufficient number so that new species could emerge. Such an event would be an example of Group of answer choices A.equilibrium. B.macroevolution. C.microevolution. D.the founder effect.
Answer:
B.macroevolution
Explanation:
Macroevolution is a type of evolutionary change pattern and process that brings about the emergence of new species through isolation, genetic drift, natural selection or gene flow. Macroevolution occurs on a larger scale above species level, unlike microevolution that is restricted to within a species or population.
Answer:
B. Macro-evolution.
Explanation:
It is a type of macro-evolution because in a separated and isolated specie there is a gradual but abrupt change is going to take place and a new specie is going to emerge in the environment. The new specie will have a effect on the value of it's mother specie and because the new specie is better adapted version of the previous one in particular environment. It may become possible that the new specie will continue to thrive and her mother specie will become extinct as the time passes by...
Epigenetics usually refers to heritable changes in the expression patterns of chromatin. Is it appropriate to refer to this term to describe changes that occur during memory formation?
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation: Yes because epigenetics which simply the talks about the modification of genes is a major component in the changes that occur during memory formation. One cannot talk about Memory Formation without Gene expression which has been shown to be needed for long-term memory to form.
Answer:YES.
Basically one characteristic feature of Epigenetic is the ability to provide a chromatin frameworks which can produce a set of gene expression that can be passed to subsequent generation by mitotic cell division, and which is unique to a class of cell.
Basically long term memory formation has been linked to a well organized pattern of gene expression. Therefore if Epigenetics could provide a particular chromatin framework for a specific set of gene expression; then it can be used to describe set of changes that occurred during memory formation since the gene expression for memory formation will be mediated by the particular chromatin framework unique to the group or family memory formation cells only. Therefore the gene expression will be well coordinated for memory expression.
Explanation:
You are filling up a glass with cold water in the sink and are not paying close attention. You notice the water is filling very quickly, so to stop it from overflowing, you turn off the faucet. Luckily, you stop the water just in time, but you notice that the water at the top of the glass is not perfectly flat. Instead, it forms a convex shape over the top of the glass. What causes this?
Answer:
Cohesion of the water
Explanation:
Hope this help!!
A company is debating whether to enter a new industry. The first order of business is to conduct an analysis of the five forces. Why is this a crucial first step in the decision-making process of entering a new industry?
Answer:
Option A, If the barrier for entry is low, and suppliers and buyers have strong bargaining power, the venture will most likely fail.
Explanation:
Complete question is as follows -
A company is debating whether to enter a new industry. The first order of business is to conduct an analysis of the five forces. Why is this a crucial first step in the decision-making process of entering a new industry?
a. If the barrier for entry is low, and suppliers and buyers have strong bargaining power, the venture will most likely fail.
b. If the barrier for entry is high, and suppliers and buyers have low power, the venture will most likely fail.
c. If the barrier for entry is low, and suppliers and buyers have high power, the venture will most likely succeed.
d. If the barrier for entry is high, and suppliers and buyers have high power, the venture will most likely succeed.
Solution
There are fiver forces which should be assessed while entering into new industry which are as follows -
• Competitive rivalry- Markets with less competiveness are attractive but may not survive long while on the other hand market with high competitiveness reduce the power of new entrant
• Threat of substitute products – Customers may find substitute for the product and services offered by your company in lieu to the changing technology and science
• Bargaining power of buyers – Customers need to be offered with the most reasonable prices or else your business may not work out,
• Threat of new entrants – This always exists as there are lot of angle investor groups in the market that are making the competition fierce by funding the startups easily
• Bargaining power of suppliers – The number of suppliers must be high so that bargaining can be done for raw material and labor.
Hence, option A is correct
A______________is a type of cell that receives and transmits information in the Central Nervous System
(CNS – brain and spinal cord) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS – afferent & efferent nerves).
Answer: Neurons
Explanation:
Neurons are the types of cells found in the body. It is like the other cells of the body but it is different in its functioning.
The neurons in the body is equipped for the transmission of signals throughout the body.
It is the basic functional unit of the brain and carries the information from brain to the various parts of the body.
Insect wings may have begun to evolve as lateral extensions of the body that were used as heat dissipaters for thermoregulation. When they had become sufficiently large, these extensions became useful for gliding through the air. Additional selection refined them as flight-producing wines. If this hypothesis is correct, modern insect wings would be an example of _ .58) A) an adaptive radiation B) mutations C) the loss of Hox genes in the evolution of new form D) an exaptation
Answer:
Exaptation.
Explanation:
Evolution is the process of the the change in the characteristics of the species with respect to time. Natural selection, mutation and genetic drift is important for the evolution.
Exaptation may be defined as the biological phenomena that describe the development of the trait that has been co opted or co evolved other than the trait that has been selected for the natural selection. The flight producing wines is the extra trait that has been developed in the insects.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
What are the characteristics of eukaryotic cells but not of prokaryotic cells?
Answer:
I) Presence of nuclear envelope
II) Presence of membrane-bounded organelles
Explanation:
Unlike prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells possesses nuclear membrane and membrane-bound organelles. As a result, they undergo mitosis and meiosis.
Examples of organisms with Prokaryotic cell are bacteria, cyanobacteria
Examples of organisms with eukaryotic cells are green plants, fruitfly etc
Two European men and two Polynesian women settled on a previously uninhabited tropical island. All four of the settlers have brown eyes, a dominant trait, but one of the Europeans is heterozygous and carries the recessive gene for blue eyes.
No new settlers arrive,and nobody leaves the island.After a few generations,the percentage of blue-eyed individuals increases from the original zero to 25 percent.This is probably due to which of the following factors?
A) genetic drift
B) mutation
C) gene flow
Answer:
Two European men and two Polynesian women settled on a previously uninhabited tropical island. All four of the settlers have brown eyes, a dominant trait, but one of the Europeans is heterozygous and carries the recessive gene for blue eyes. No new settlers arrive,and nobody leaves the island.After a few generations,the percentage of blue-eyed individuals increases from the original zero to 25 percent.This is probably due to which of the following factors?
genetic drift
Explanation:
Genetic drift entails when there are changes in the gene frequency which occur in a gene that is existing. From the analogy above, it is a known fact that only gneetic drift could allow such to happen as mutation will only occur with a sudden change of gene which is not the case described above
Final answer:
The increase in blue-eyed individuals in an isolated island population is likely due to genetic drift (option A), a random fluctuation in allele frequencies that is pronounced in small populations.
Explanation:
The increase in the percentage of blue-eyed individuals in a small, isolated population from 0 to 25% is most likely due to option A) genetic drift. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that refers to random changes in the frequencies of alleles within a population's gene pool. This can lead to the increase or decrease of specific alleles, and is especially pronounced in small populations where chance events can have a more significant impact on the gene pool. An initial population where all individuals have brown eyes, but one individual carries the allele for blue eyes, is an example of how genetic drift could cause a notable change over generations if the alleles are passed on randomly.
In the given scenario, the heterozygous European man carrying the recessive gene for blue eyes could have passed it on to his offspring, and due to the small population size and isolation of the island, these traits could become more common by chance over a few generations. A mutation would imply a change in the genetic material which is not mentioned in the scenario, and gene flow requires the movement of genes between populations, which is also not applicable here as the population is isolated.
Ribosomes are found: Select one: a. on smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. on the rough endoplasmic reticulum c. in the cytoplasm d. in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum e. on the Golgi apparatus
Answer:
The answers is D
Explanation:
Ribosomes are numerous, small, round organelles that perform the function of protein production in the cell. They are found as freely-floating organelles in the cytoplasm and attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Ribosomes found as free-floating within the cytoplasm produce protein to be utilized within the cell while ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum are used inside the cell or outside the cell.
In the interactive activity, what are the possible phenotypes for fur color and what gene represents each?
Answer:
Fur colour can be represented by both the dominant and the recessive alleles of the gene encoding the fur color.
Explanation:
Considering that the fur colour trait follows Mendelian laws of inheritance.The dominant allele can express itself in both the homozygous and heterozygous condition.The recessive allele can represent itself only in the homozygous condition.Therefore, there will be two phenotypes, one will be represented by both the homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant genotypes and the other represented by the homozygous recessive genotype.Considering that the fur colour trait does not follows Mendelian laws of inheritance (Incomplete Dominance or Codominance).In Incomplete dominance, three phenotypes are observed, for each of homozygous dominant, heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive genotypes respectively.In Codominance, phenotypes of both the dominant and recessive genotype is shown in the same individual.In the activity, rabbit fur color phenotypes relate to the 'C' genes, with four possible alleles leading to different color expressions. In mice, an example of epistasis is shown where the 'C' gene can override the 'A' gene's color determination, leading to an albino mouse. These cases illustrate the concepts of phenotype (observable traits) and genotype (genetic makeup).
Explanation:In the activity, the possible phenotypes for fur color in rabbits are represented by the 'C' genes. The wild-type allele is expressed as brown fur, the chinchilla phenotype is expressed as black-tipped white fur, the Himalayan phenotype has black fur on the extremities and white fur elsewhere, and finally, the albino phenotype is expressed as white fur. Therefore, this 'C' gene is represented by four alleles; wild-type (C+C+), chinchilla (cchcch), Himalayan (chch), and albino (cc). This indicates a dominance hierarchy, with the wild-type being most dominant and the albino being the least.
In mice, an example of epistasis is demonstrated. The 'A' gene determines the coat color, with the wild-type coat color, agouti (AA), being dominant over solid-color (aa). However, the 'C' gene, which impacts pigment production, can override the 'A' gene when present as a homozygous recessive (cc), resulting in an albino mouse irrespective of the 'A' gene configuration.
These illustrate the concepts of phenotype and genotype. The phenotype is the observable physical characteristics, in these cases the fur color, which are determined by the genotype, or the genetic makeup of an organism.
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Storage forms of glucose in living things include _____.
Answer: Starch, Cellulose, inulin etc
Explanation:
Several units of glucose (monosaccharides) are linked to form polysaccharides. These polysaccharides are found in living things
For example:
In plants, starch serve as a stored form of energy, while cellulose, an indigestible material provide strength to plants
Also, starch consists of monosaccharides i.e glucose units with an alpha α-1, 4-glycosidic bond; while cellulose has the same glucose units, but linked by beta β-1, 4-glycosidic bonds
Glucose is stored in the form of glycogen in animals and starch in plants. Glycogen is mainly stored in the liver and muscle cells and is released through the process of glycogenolysis during low blood glucose levels or fasting.
Explanation:Storage forms of glucose in living things include glycogen and starch. Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in humans and other vertebrates, and is made up of monomers of glucose. It is a highly branched molecule usually stored in liver and muscle cells. When blood glucose levels decrease, glycogen is broken down to release glucose in a process known as glycogenolysis. Starch, on the other hand, is the storage form of glucose in plants, comprising 20% to 25% amylose and 75% to 80% amylopectin.
In contrast, storage of glucose as glycogen is more efficient since it requires much less water than storing glucose directly.
During periods of fasting or when there is a need for glucose, the body can draw on these glycogen reserves. The liver, with a higher percentage of glycogen by weight, plays a critical role in maintaining blood glucose levels by releasing glucose during fasting or energy-demanding situations.
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In an experiment described in your text, scientists were collecting data in an attempt to understand factors impacting the proliferation and success of the chytrid fungus pathogen that has dramatically impacted frog populations globally. In the graph pictured, scientists observed that frog species with higher average body temperature tended to have lower infection rates. Is this observational study analytical or descriptive?
Answer:
Descriptive
Explanation:
Descriptive studies are conducted when the there is no reference of the problem or observation. It provides an opportunity to study something new. While an Analytic study references exists and hence inferences can be drawn based on the questioning, surveys, hypothesis testing and comparisons. In this study no hypothesis is conducted to determine a solution, instead in depth study of existing scenarios and facts is done to determine the factors affecting proliferation in frogs.
Hence, the given study is descriptive
Final answer:
The observational study is analytical as it examines the relationship between frog body temperatures and chytrid fungus infection rates.
Explanation:
The observation that frog species with higher average body temperatures tend to have lower infection rates by the chytrid fungus pathogen is part of an observational study. Based on the information given, the study can be classified as analytical because it involves comparing infection rates across different species with varying body temperatures to understand the factors affecting the proliferation and success of the chytrid fungus. Analytical observational studies focus on analyzing relationships between variables, in this case, body temperature and infection rates, rather than merely describing characteristics of a population without looking for existing relationships, which would be descriptive.
Stone fly nymphs live in beds of streams that contain a high level of dissolved oxygen (DO). When the dissolved oxygen decreases in the stream, stone fly nymphs can no longer live there. Stone fly nymphs are an example of
Answer:
Indicator species
Explanation:
Indicator species refers to the species whose presence or absence in particular ecosystem indicates about the condition of the ecosystem.
In the given question, the stonefly which cannot survive if the dissolved oxygen in the water gets reduced as a result of the pollution indicates that the ecosystem or habitat has some pollutants which have decreased the level of DO in the aquatic habitat.
Thus, the indicator species is the correct answer.
While exploring a local wooded area, you encounter what you believe to be a previously uncharacterized organism. Upon microscopic evaluation, you notice a single-celled organism about 1 micrometer, lacking a nucleus. What type of cell is this?a. nucelote b. prokaryote c. not enough information provided d. eukaryote
Answer:
B (prokaryote)
Explanation:
Life, in general, has been classified into three domains viz: Eukarya, Bacteria and Archaeae. The first (Eukarya) are organisms with a well defined membrane-bound compartment that houses their genetic material (DNA) called NUCLEUS. On the other hand, the other two domains are generally referred to as prokaryotic organisms because they lack this membrane-bound nucleus. Hence, their genetic material is found naked in a region of the cytoplasm called NUCLEOID.
Therefore, in this question, after microscopically observing and evaluating the uncharacterized organism, It showed that its cell lacked a nucleus. This immediately points out that the cell must be PROKARYOTIC CELL.
Atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of ________ secreted by the zona glomerulosa. a. aldosterone b. epinephrine c. calcitonin d. antidiuretic hormone
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A. aldosterone.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is secreted by the Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland. It is mineralocorticoid which is a steroid hormone that signals the kidney to prevent sodium ion and water in case of low blood pressure and volume in vessels. To save the water and ion of salts it promotes the reabsorption and leads to low urine output.
On another hand, ANP or atrial natriuretic peptide which release from the heart and enhances the urine output in response to high blood volume and pressure as it ceases the release of the Aldosterone.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
An atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of aldosterone (Option a).
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland.The function of this hormone (aldosterone) is to control the amount of salt (and also water) in the body.An atrial natriuretic peptide is a molecule that induces the excretion of sodium by the kidneys.In conclusion, an atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of aldosterone (Option a).
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Describe the interaction between bacteria and an antibiotic.
Subject: Anatomy and Physiology
Answer:
Antibiotics are chemicals that kills the growth of bacteria and can be used in the treatment of bacterial infections. They work by breaking the cell wall of bacteria.
In turn antibiotics are produced in nature by soil bacteria and fungi.
How is systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) different from multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
Explanation:
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome is an inflammatory state affecting the whole body. It is an noninfectious or infectious insult.
Whereas the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is also known as multiple organ failure which is altered organ function in which the different organs of the body stops working. This is not a kind of response, a kind of organ failure.
This condition requires intervention to maintain homeostasis inside the body.
In a medium where lactose is the only carbon source, transcription of the lac operon is _______, because lac repressor is ________ to the ________.
Question is incomplete i have added full question in ask for detail section.
Answer:
Option c. unblocked, not bound, operator is the correct option.
In a medium where lactose is the only carbon source, transcription of the lac operon is _unblocked_, because lac repressor is _not bound_ to the _operator_.
Explanation:
See attached images for explanation
Albinism is a recessive disorder in which the skin and hair fail to produce pigment. The following question(s) ask you to evaluate the pedigree chart shown here in which "N" is the allele for normal pigmentation and "n" is the allele for albinism. The shaded circles for Deirdre and Shannon represent the only individuals expressing the disorder.According to the pedigree above, who is a not a carrier of albino?
A. Aaron
B. Bill
C. Brandon
D. All of the above are carriers of albino
Answer:
D. All of the above are carriers of albino
Explanation:
Now according to pedigree:
1st generation both male and female are carriers of albino and in result of that Dierdre is disordered (nn) and when Dierdre (nn) is married to person who is carrier (Nn) because their daughter Shannon is also disordered (nn). It means one allele from mother (nn) and one allele from father (Nn) comes and affect the Shannon (nn).
As mother Dierdre is effective having both nn alleles so everytime she share n allele to her offsprings.
So, according to explanation above Aaron, Bill and Brandon all are carriers of albino.
Why can the boundary layer surrounding a photosynthetic organism make it difficult for the organism to obtain the carbon dioxide it needs for photosynthesis?
Answer:
The boundary layer is a thin region of calm air that encompass each leaf. The hardness of the boundary layer affects how rapidly gasses and energy are interchanged between the leaf and the neighbouring air. A dense or hard boundary layer can decrease the passage of heat, CO2 and water vapor from the leaf to the surrounding.
The boundary layer surrounding a photosynthetic organism make it difficult for the organism to obtain the carbon dioxide it needs for photosynthesis as this is due to the boundary layer which is made of unstirred water, CO2 and HCO3− can be reduced within the boundary layer by uptake— mostly in the region nearest to the photosynthesizing organism—but the expelled gases are slow to be recovered from the encompassing water.
Answer:
Because this boundary layer consists of unstirred water, carbon dioxide, and HCO₃ can be depleted in the boundary layer by uptake, especially in the region closest to the photosynthetic organism. Still, the removed gases can be slowly replaced by the surrounding water.
In a certain species of plant, flowers occur in three colors: blue, pink, and white. A pure-breeding pink plant is mated with a pure-breeding white plant. All of the F1 are blue. When the blue F1 plants are selfed, the F2 occurs in the ratio 9 blue:3 pink:4 whitE. How many gene pairs control the flower color phenotype?
Answer: If the F2 occurs in the ratio 9 blue:3 pink:4 white, one gene pair (i.e 2 genes) control the flower color phenotype.
Explanation: This principle is called INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE where one gene (dominant) won't completely override the other (recessive).
Let assume B represents the dominant gene and b represents the reccesive gene. Let also assume that Blue color is dominant over white color. We can assign the genotype as follows;
Homozygous dominant genes BB will produce Blue color
Homozygous recessive genes bb will produce white color
Heterozygous genes Bb will produce pink color.
Therefore, a pair of gene ( 2 genes) will determine the flower color phenotype.
In a certain species of plant, the flower color phenotype is controlled by two gene pairs. The F1 generation consists of blue flowers, which suggests that blue color is dominant over pink and white. The F2 generation exhibits a 9:3:4 phenotypic ratio of blue:pink:white.
Explanation:The flower color phenotype in the given species of plant is controlled by two gene pairs. Each gene pair contains two alleles, which can either be dominant or recessive. The pink parent plant is homozygous for the dominant allele, resulting in the pink color, while the white parent plant is homozygous for the recessive allele, resulting in the white color.
When the pink plant is crossed with the white plant, their offspring (F1 generation) all have the dominant allele for blue color, resulting in blue flowers. This suggests that the blue color is dominant over both pink and white. As a result, the blue F1 plants are heterozygous for the blue allele
When the blue F1 plants are self-fertilized, the resulting offspring (F2 generation) show a phenotypic ratio of 9 blue:3 pink:4 white. This indicates that the blue color is controlled by two gene pairs, as the ratio follows a classic Mendelian dihybrid ratio.
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True or false. The highlighted bone articulates with the ulna. True or false. The highlighted bone articulates with the ulna. FALSE TRUE
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The ulna articulates with the humerus in the upper arm and the radius in the forearm, allowing for movement of the elbow and wrist. However, it does not interact with every bone, so the truth of the statement depends on which bone is highlighted.
Explanation:Without knowing exactly which bone is highlighted, it's hard to definitively answer your question. However, I can tell you that the ulna typically articulates, or forms a joint with, two bones: the humerus in the upper arm and the radius in the forearm. These articulations are responsible for the flexible and fluid movement of your elbow and wrist. However, the ulna does not articulate with every bone in the body. Therefore, whether the statement is true or false largely depends on which bone is being highlighted.
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What theory of hearing contends that the perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires?
Answer:
The frequency theory of hearing
Explanation:
The frequency theory of hearing contends that the perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires.
The frequency theory of hearing pinpoints that the frequency of the auditory nerve's impulses coincides to the frequency of a tone, which makes it easy to distinguish its pitch. It causes the neural signals speed to go in line with the brain to distinguish the pitch.
Place theory says that the perception of pitch is connected with vibration of certain portions of the basilar membrane, and the frequency theory says the perception of pitch is connected with the frequency at which the whole basilar membrane vibrates.
Answer: The frequency theory of hearing
Explanation:
The frequency theory of hearing states that the rate at which auditory nerve impulses occurs is associated with the frequency of a tone whose pitch is been detected. It simply explains that it is the pulse which travels up to the auditory nerve that carries the sound that we hear for the brain to process and thus there is a match between the pulse rate and the sound being heard. The theory was created by William Rutherford a British Physiologist.
A heterozygous y'all yellow plant is crossed with a homozygous short green. What will be the genotypes and phenotypes, and probabilities of the first generation?
The cross between a heterozygous tall yellow plant and a homozygous short green plant produces first-generation offspring with a variety of genotypes and phenotypes based on allele dominance. The probabilities need to be calculated using a Punnett square.
Explanation:When a heterozygous tall yellow plant is crossed with a homozygous short green plant, the resulting genotypes and phenotypes of the first generation can be predicted using a Punnett square. Assuming tall (T) is dominant to short (t) and yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y), and if tall is linked with yellow and short with green, the resulting genotypes could be TtYy, ttyy, ttYy, and Ttyy. To analyze this, we only need a 2 × 2 Punnett square since two of the alleles (Y from the tall yellow plant and y from the short green plant) are homozygous.
The phenotypes of the first generation will be based on the dominance of the alleles. The potential phenotypic outcomes are tall yellow, tall green, short yellow, and short green plants. Since we are crossing a heterozygous plant with a homozygous plant, the probabilities for each phenotype are not a simple 3:1 or 1:2:1 ratio, but rather they need to be calculated based on the individual alleles involved.
Drugs that create feelings of calmness, reduce muscle tension, and lower sympathetic activity in the brain are called _____.
Answer:
Drugs that create feelings of calmness, reduce muscle tension, and lower sympathetic activity in the brain are called Anti anxiety Drugs.
Explanation:
Anti anxiety Drugs:- These drugs are also known as anxiolyticor minor tranquilizer. These drugs are classified as any category of drugs that reduces the symptoms of or Anxiety. Anxiety is a state of pervasive apprehension or fear of missing out that may be activated by specific environmental or personal factors.
A person with anxiety may suffer several symptoms like palpitations, nausea, dizziness, headaches, and chest pains, sleeplessness and fatigue. When these conditions aresevere and not normal that person is advised to take care with both medication and psychotherapy.
Answer:
Antianxiety drugs or Anxiolytic
Explanation:
The antianxiety drugs refer to the drugs which can reduce the effects of the anxiety or inhibit the anxiety disorder.
The anti-anxiety drugs act on the neurons by producing the various neurotransmitters like the dopamine, serotonin, GABA which reduces the neuronal activity. The most commonly used anti-anxiety drugs are the Benzodiazepines and the Buspirone.
Thus, Antianxiety drugs are the correct answer.
uring which period of prenatal development would exposure to teratogens most likely cause defects to major body structures? a. embryo b. implantation c. fetus d. zygote
Answer:
The answer is option a. embryo
Explanation:
There are three stages in the prenatal period, namely the germinal, embryonic and foetal period.
The germinal period begins at conception and last for two weeks.
The embryonic period begins after germinal stage and last for two months. It is a period where organogenesis and development of limb buds occurs. These makes it a delicate period during prenatal development.
In the fetal period, sex organs bones and muscle tissues form. There is rapid growth of the foetus. It is a period which begin after two months of conception until birth.
The period of prenatal development during which exposure to teratogens is a. embryo.
Understanding Teratogens: Teratogens are substances that can cause malformations or defects in a developing fetus. They can include drugs, alcohol, infections, and environmental chemicals.
Critical Periods: The embryonic stage is known as a critical period in prenatal development, meaning that this is when the foundations for major body structures are laid out. This timing is crucial because during this phase, the major organs and systems (such as the heart, brain, and spinal cord) begin to form and are particularly sensitive to harmful influences.
Development of Major Structures: During the embryonic stage, cells differentiate and change into various types that will become the major structures of the body. For example, within just a few weeks after conception, the neural tube develops, which eventually becomes the spinal cord and brain. If teratogens are introduced during this time, they can disrupt the normal development of these critical structures.
Consequences of Exposure: Teratogenic effects can vary depending on the timing of exposure, the dose, and the genetic susceptibility of the embryo. The earlier the exposure occurs during the embryonic stage, the more severe the potential defects may be.
what PA projection of the chest may be used to evaluate the heart and great vessels when performing a cardiac series?
Answer:
The answer is 55-60 degrees left anterior oblique (LAO).
Explanation:
During a cardiac series to observe the heart and the great vessels, the PA Projection of the chest, which is a term describing the x-ray's going through the patient's chest from a posterior to anterior direction, a 55-60 degrees left anterior oblique projection (LAO) should be used to get the best results.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
55-60 degree LAO
Explanation:
The circulation of the chest radiography can mimic the normal pathological process and make it challenging to produce a proper diagnosis. The chest PA view is used to investigate a variety of situations, and it is the radiographer's responsibility to ensure that high-quality diagnostic images are obtained consistently.
The most common ideas are postoperative, intraoperative, and lateral. In the posteroventricular (PA) scenario, the X-ray source is determined because the X-ray beam enters from the back of the chest and exits the end (front), where the laser is detected.
A shared ancestral character is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of the B) shared by all mammals but not found in the new C) an evolutionary novelty unique to a clade D) an outgroup characters
Answer:
The correct answer is option A) "a character that originated in an ancestor of the taxon".
Explanation:
A shared ancestral character is defined as a character that originated in an ancestor of the taxon. This type of characters contrasts with shared derived characters, which are characters that develop within the taxon and do not include all the ancestors of a given phylogenetic tree. For instance, the presence of four limbs is a shared ancestral character for a large group of animals, including amphibians, birds, mammals, turtles, crocodiles, among others.
A shared ancestral character is a trait found in the common ancestor of a group and passed down to all its members. Therefore, the answer is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of the clade.
This type of character originated in an ancestor of the clade and has been passed down without significant changes. For example, having a vertebrate is a shared ancestral character for all vertebrates. This character does not change over time within the clade, unlike derived characters. This is different from a shared derived character, which is an evolutionary novelty unique to a certain sub-group within the clade. Therefore, the correct answer is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of the clade.A BbGg x bbgg cross yields a phenotypic ratio of approximately 5 black eyes, green skin : 5 orange eyes, white skin : 1 black eyes, white skin : 1 orange eyes, green skin. Which of the following best explains these results?
A.Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment are being violated.
B.The heterozygous individual is male, and the homozygous individual is female.
C.The genes for eye color and skin color are co-dominant.
D.Mendel's law of independent assortment is being violated.
E. Mendel's law of segregation is being violated.
Answer:
D.Mendel's law of independent assortment is being violated.
Explanation:
According to Mendel in his law of independent assortment, the allele of one gene gets sorted into gametes independently of the allele of another gene. He discovered this when he performed a cross involving two characters i.e. dihybrid cross, which he obtained a F2 phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1. This ratio is only possible if each allele of each gene is represented in each gamete i.e. a dominant allele of the first gene is equally likely possible to be contained with a dominant or recessive allele in the second gene.
If this occurs according to the Mendel's law of independent assortment, a total of four possible combinations of gametes should be produced by each parent organism. When this 4 gametes are crossed in a punnet square, a total of 16 offsprings will be possible.
However, in this case, a total of 12 offsprings were produced, depicting that the alleles did not separate independently of one another to produce four possible gametes.
The observation that the genes for eye color and skin color are not assorting independently in this cross violation indicates a violation of Mendel's law of independent assortment, suggesting these genes are likely linked on the same chromosome.
Explanation:The phenotypic ratio given - about 5 black eyes, green skin : 5 orange eyes, white skin : 1 black eyes, white skin : 1 orange eyes, green skin - indicates that there are two genes in play here: one for eye color and one for skin color. Also, those genes are not assorting independently. This is a clear violation of Mendel's law of independent assortment, which states that alleles for different traits segregate, or assort, independently of each other during gamete formation.
So, the best fit of the given options would be (D) Mendel's law of independent assortment is being violated. Consideration of the phenotypic ratio in this cross indicates that the genes determining eye and skin color are not being sorted into gametes independently, suggesting these genes are linked or close together on the same chromosome.
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The _____ is the place where the optic nerve fibers divide. As a result of this division, what we see in the left side of our vision is processed in the right side of the brain, and vice versa.
Ansr:
The answer is optic chiasma.
Explanation:
The optic nerve is cranial nerve II (CII). It is responsible for carrying sensory stimuli from the retina of the eye to the primary visual cortex of the brain. The optic nerves forms part of the central nervous system. At the optic chiasma, located in the middle cranial fossa, fibres from each nerve crosses such that stimulus from the right is transmitted to the left visual cortex while stimulus from the retina of the left eye is transmitted to the right visual cortex.
The Optic Chiasm is the place in the brain where optic nerve fibers divide, which allows information from the left side of our vision to be processed in the right side of the brain, and vice versa.
Explanation:The place where the optic nerve fibers divide is called the Optic Chiasm. This part of the brain manages what we see and where it gets processed. This crossing over of optic nerve fibers at the Optic Chiasm helps in creating a complete image of our visual field. Specifically, information from the left side of our vision is processed in the right side of the brain, and vice versa. This is an incredible demonstration of the complexity and organization within our visual system and nervous system.
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