5.
Fertilization of an egg by a sperm occurs in the

A. ovaries.

B. fallopian tubes.

C. vagina.

D. cervix.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

it would be (B)

Explanation:

Because Fertilization takes place in the fallopian tubes, which connect the ovaries to the uterus. Fertilization happens when a sperm cell successfully meets an egg cell in the fallopian tube. Once fertilization takes place, this newly fertilized cell is called a zygote.

Answer 2
Fertilisation of an egg by a sleek occurs in the fall pain tubes

Related Questions

Nutrients are the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly. units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food. made up of three basic food groups: proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. the healthful compounds found in vitamins and minerals.?

Answers

Answer:

the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly.

Explanation:

Nutrients are the constituent of which a food is made up of and are required by the body to function properly. They provide energy to our body to perform the necessary and essential metabolic activities.  

They help in body growth and tissue repair. There are six major nutrients that we get from our food. These nutrients are- carbohydrate, fat, protein, vitamin, mineral, and water.

Nutrient is required by every organism to survive. Some nutrients are required in large amounts called macronutrients and some in the small amounts called micronutrients.

Assume that a girl who is exactly 12 years old has a weight of 100 pounds and a height of 5 feet 2 inches. What is her BMI?

Answers

18.3

Explanation:

The BMI is 18.3. This is a healthy weight and height for a female at 12.

Her BMI would be about 18.3. This is a healthy BMI for someone her age

The SAT scores of the incoming freshmen at a particular university are highly correlated with the same students’ cumulative GPA at the end of their freshman year. In this example, the SAT has high ________ validity.

Answers

Answer: predictive

Explanation: predictive validity refers to the evidence or extent that a certain test score or criteria could be used to measure another score or criteria which can only be assessed at a later time. In the question stated above, Due to the high correlation that exist between the SAT scores of freshmen and their future Grade Point Average(GPA), Predictions of Grade point Average using SAT scores resulted in high validity predictions.

Answer:

Explanation: predictive validity refers to the evidence or extent that a certain test score or criteria could be used to measure another score or criteria which can only be assessed at a later time. In the question stated above, Due to the high correlation that exist between the SAT scores of freshmen and their future Grade Point Average(GPA), Predictions of Grade point Average using SAT scores resulted in high validity predictions.

Explanation:

In the article, "Alzheimer's preventative drug hope", researchers discovered a neurostatin that could be used as a preventative measure to stop the condition appearing in the first place.
A) True
B) False

Answers

Answer:

A) True

Explanation:

In this article, researchers reported the founding of a drug that targets the first step in the reaction that leads to brain cell's death that subsequently leads to Alzheimer's.

I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!

_________________ assumes that children learn gender-linked behaviors by observing and imitating others and through the rewards and punishments they receive for their imitation.

Answers

Answer: social learning theory

Explanation:

Social learning theory can be defined as the learning process and social behavior which suggests that new things can be learned by observing and intimating the others.

It suggests that the learning is the cognitive process that can take place in social context. The learning can be achieved through following direct instructions and observation. The learning also occurs through observation of punishments and rewards.

. Children of obese parents suffer an increased risk of becoming obese. What factors could lessen this risk? You may select more than one answer for this question. eating together as a family instead of in front of the TV planning meals to limit high-fat foods using food as a reward limiting portion sizes

Answers

Answer: Planning meals to limit high-fat foods and limiting portion sizes

Explanation: When you're obese it does not matter if you eat at a table with family or in front of a tv it does not minimize your portions or change the diet. Using food as a reward is saying "if you do this you get chips" doing that would just make you have something to look forward to if you do something good.

A young child who used to like bananas now gets nauseated if he has to eat them. This has happened ever since he fell ill two months ago from spinning on a carousel right after eating a banana in the playground. This would be an example of a:_________

Answers

Answer:

Food Aversion

Explanation:

Final answer:

A child's nausea when eating bananas after a negative experience on a carousel exemplifies taste aversion conditioning, which is a type of Pavlovian conditioning. This learned response is biologically advantageous as it helps organisms avoid harmful substances.

Explanation:

The young child's newfound nausea when faced with bananas, after a negative experience of falling ill from spinning on a carousel right after eating one, is an example of taste aversion conditioning. Taste aversion occurs when a previously neutral taste is paired with an unpleasant experience such as sickness, causing the organism to reject and dislike that taste in the future. Pavlovian conditioning, or classical conditioning, helps to explain this phenomenon, where the banana (conditioned stimulus) becomes associated with the feeling of nausea (unconditioned stimulus), even though the banana was not the direct cause of the sickness.

This type of learning is biologically advantageous, because it helps organisms avoid potentially harmful substances. The example provided illustrates how an innocuous food associated with a negative experience can trigger aversion even after a single instance, which is an especially relevant concept for understanding how certain treatments, like chemotherapy, can inadvertently lead to taste aversions in patients.

A study seeks to determine if fish oil is effective at preventing heart attacks. Scientists interview 200 people and ask about heart attacks in the past 3 years. 120 people take fish oil regularly, whereas the 80 who do not take fish oil are referred to as the "control group." The above is an example of _________.

Answers

Answer:

An epidemiological study.

Explanation:

Epidemiology may be defined as the sub field of immunology that mainly deals with the study of the particular disease especially in the group of population of human beings.

The epidemiology includes the main reason of the disease, its cause and its medication. In the given example, the scientists study about the heart rate incident in the population. Later, the regular effect of the fish oil is also noticed in the population. This study clearly indicates the epidemiological study.

Thus, the correct answer is epidemiological study.

Answer:

An epidemiological study.

Explanation:

The textbook reports research showing that people with autism had fewer connections between brain areas than did siblings or controls. Which neuroscientific technique might a researcher use if she wished to replicate this finding?

Answers

Answer:

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

Explanation:

Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a recently developed technique that makes use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to analyze the nerve cells anatomy and the neuronal network that is found in the brain.  This technique, an improved version of conventional MRI, was introduced for the first time in 1994 by Peter Joel Basser, who specializes in Healthcare Management, Quantitative Imaging, Brain Imaging and Neuroplasticity.

Dr. McCoy is attempting to determine the zone of proximal development for Jim when Jim works on complex mazes. In order to do so, Dr. McCoy must measure Jim’s personal performance on the maze and __________.

Answers

Answer:

Dinn's maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper

Explanation:

The zone of proximal development is defined as the distance that exist between the level of actual development obtained from independent problem solving the the potential development level, obtained from solving a problem under guidance by an adult or when collaborating with peers that are capable to solve the problem. Hence to determine the zone of proximal development, Dr Mc Coy must measure Jim’s personal performance on the maze and his maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper.

Crohn disease has a distinguishing pattern in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The surface has granulomatous lesions surrounded by normal-appearing mucosal tissue. A complication of the pattern includes:________

Answers

Answer: Cobblestone

Explanation:

Crohn's disease can be defined as an inflammatory bowel disease which may affect the segment of the gastrointestinal tract that covers the mouth to the anus. This disease is characterized by the formation of lesions in the colon as well as in the bowel typically in the submucosal layer.  

The submucosal layer of the bowel takes the appearance of the cobblestone due to formation of the fissures and crevices also surrounded by the submucosal edema.

According to ACSM, tests allowing fewer than ______ repetitions before momentary muscle fatigue measure muscular strength, whereas those that require more than _____ repetitions measure local muscular endurance

Answers

Answer:

3, 12

Explanation:

According to ACSM, tests allowing fewer than 3 repetitions before momentary muscle fatigue measure muscular strength, whereas those that require more than 12 repetitions measure local muscular endurance. For muscular endurance Dynamic Repetition is always advised, where you repeat a particular test more than 12 repetition, where as for strength it is expected to do repetition one to three times.

According to some researchers, cognitive development continues beyond Piaget's formal operational stage to the __________ level.

Answers

Answer:

Postformal thought

Explanation:

During the summer of 1921, frederick banting performed experiments on dogs. in one group of dogs, he tried to cause the dogs to develop diabetes by removing an organ. Which organ did he remove?

Answers

Answer:

The biggest breakthrough came in 1921 when Frederick Banting and Charles Best conducted a series of experiments one summer in the laboratory of J.J. R. Macleod at the University of Toronto. Like Minkowski and von Mering, they showed that removing the pancreas from dogs made them diabetic.

Explanation:

The study of a living being is called biology.

The correct answer is the pancreas

What is diabetes?Diabetes is a disorder of the dysfunction of the hormone insulin which regulates the glucose amount in the blood.

In 1921, when Frederick wants to study the effect of diabetes he must remove the pancreas organ from the dog as the pancreas releases insulin which controls the amount of glucose in the blood.

Hence, the correct answer is the pancreas.

For more information about organs, refer to the link:-

https://brainly.com/question/9350045

If Lisa had family members with a history of schizophrenia and at a point in life she was exposed to severe environmental stressors, she may be likely to develop schizophrenia according to the ______ explanation of the cause of abnormal behavior.

Answers

Answer:

diathesis–stress model

Explanation:

According to the diathesis–stress model, disorders such as schizophrenia develops from the combination of the genetic or biological tendency of schizophrenia to arise combined with factors such as environmental stressor which facilitates its development. Cortisol production in the body is influenced by stress, which in combination with the fact that Lisa has a genetic tendency for developing the disorder, would trigger the symptoms of schizophrenia.

Answer:

diathesis–stress model

Explanation:

This fossil evidence provides support for the idea that A. modern organisms have evolved from earlier species. B. changes can only occur in a species' feet and teeth. C. modern organisms within a species are identical to their ancestors. D. ancient species are now extinct and modern species have spontaneously generated.

Answers

Answer:

This fossil evidence provides support for the idea that (a) modern organisms have evolved from earlier species.

Explanation:

Fossil Evidence: Fossils are evidence or clues that have been left behind by living things and are found by archaeologists. They are tools that are helpful for understanding the diverse groups of organisms that have lived in our planet at one time or another.

we define fossil as any preserved evidence of an organism.

Answer:

Modern organisms have evolved from earlier species.

Explanation:

Scientists often use fossil evidence as evidence for the theory of evolution because fossils show how modern organisms have evolved from earlier species.

“What safety measures do you take when participating in physical activity? What kind of injuries described today have you or a member of your family had?"

Answers

The safety measures to be followed before taking part in physical activity.

Explanation:

Perform Full warm up and cool down before and after activity.Drink plenty of water earlier, through and after an activity to avoid dehydration.Follow the correct techniques and skills for your activity.Wear protecting equipment of correct size as needed for your activity.Maintain equipment regularly.Wear sunscreen, protective clothing, a hat and sunglasses or a warm hat, gloves and coats.During hot weather, reduce activity to the coolest times of day and reduce intensity of activities.I had Muscle pull and strain due to over workout and knee injuries while running.

Which of the following is a positive statement?
A. Nelly’s dog should lose some weight.
B. Legally requiring dogs to have rabies shots will reduce the number of rabid dogs.
C. Nelly should take her dog to the veterinarian once a year for a check up.
D. Chihuahuas are cuter than bulldogs.
E. All dogs should be required to wear leashes at all times.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B) Legally requiring dogs to have rabies shots will reduce the number of rabid dogs.

Explanation:

A positive statement can be described as a statement which described what is, was or will be. These kinds of statements are based on empirical evidence.  In simple words, a positive statement can be described as a statement  which is made based upon facts.

As the statement B, Legally requiring dogs to have rabies shots will reduce the number of rabid dogs, is based on facts and described what will be hence, it is an example of a positive statement.

There has been a fire in an apartment building, and it has spread to seven apartment units. Victims have suffered burns, minor injuries, and broken bones from jumping from windows. Which persons can be safely treated at the scene and transported to a health care facility after victims with more emergent problems have been transported first?
a. female client who is 5 months pregnant with no apparent injuries
b. male who is 50 years of age with no injuries, rapid respirations, and coughing
c. a child who is 10 years of age with an apparent simple fracture of the humerus
d. female who is 20 years of age with first-degree burns on hands and forearms
e. male who is 75 years of age with second-degree burns on both legs

Answers

C. The child with a simple fracture of the humerus
Final answer:

After victims with more emergent problems have been transported first, the persons who can be safely treated at the scene and transported to a healthcare facility are a pregnant female with no apparent injuries, a 50-year-old male with rapid respirations and coughing, and a 20-year-old female with first-degree burns on hands and forearms.

Explanation:

After victims with more emergent problems have been transported first, the persons who can be safely treated at the scene and transported to a healthcare facility are:

Female client who is 5 months pregnant with no apparent injuries: Although she doesn't have any apparent injuries, it is important to have her evaluated by healthcare professionals to ensure the safety of both her and the unborn child.Male who is 50 years of age with no injuries, rapid respirations, and coughing: This individual should be assessed by healthcare professionals to determine the cause of the rapid respirations and coughing.Female who is 20 years of age with first-degree burns on hands and forearms: This person's first-degree burns can be treated at the scene and they can be transported to a healthcare facility for further evaluation and care.

HIPPA violation, example: Martha and Kelly are technicians at the hospital. In the cafeteria, they discuss a client's case. They talk about his physical description and use his doctor's name. Another person in the cafeteria overhears the talk.

Answers

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

This is a Hippa violation because they discussed a clients case

A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about the side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Answers

Answer:

"I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."

Explanation:

Clonidine is an agonist at the alpha-2 receptors ( adrenergic receptors ).

There is an area in the central nervous system (lateral hypothalamus) responsible for the secretion of saliva ,as the clonidine acts on the central alpha-2 receptors ,it causes inhibition of the secretion of the saliva resulting in dry mouth.

As the alpha-2 receptors are inhibitory receptors (Gi-coupled ) clonidine results in decreased sympathetic autonomic nervous system outflow by activating alpha-2 receptors in the CNS.

Jameela is an Iranian woman living in poverty. She is not seen in public places without being covered almost completely in heavy veils. Her usual diet is comprised of legumes, small amounts of yogurt, whole-grain breads and rice, fruits, and a few vegetables. Based on this information, Jameela is most at risk of ___________.

Answers

Answer:

osteomalacia

Explanation:

From the question, we have the following information: the woman --Jameela is poor and her diet "comprised of legumes, small amounts of yogurt, whole-grain breads and rice, fruits, and a few vegetables". Which shows that the woman has less of calcium and Phosphates in her food. Also, she is not always seen in the public and when you see her she is always in ''heavy veils" which means that she does not also allow her self to be giving the Nature natural vitamin D from the morning sun.

So, it can be concluded that Jameela is at risk of having osteomalacia if she continues this way. Osteomalacia is when someone has bones that are not strong dues to the small amount of vitamin D and some minerals such as calcium.

Answer:

she is suffering from osteomalacia. It is  majorly a Vit D deficiency condition.

Explanation:

Based on her diet, she consumed less of food rich in  Vitamin D, phosphate, Calcium, ( that is less of  yogurt, no egg, milk,  fish, or cheese,) and  few vegetables.

She was  did not  expose herself  to sunlight. She shielded  sunlight with veils blocking UV. Therefore  more deficiency in Vit D. This is responsible for 80% of her condition.

Rather she consumed more of Carbohydrate,  fibres. Therefore there is imbalance in her  bone mineralization.

Vit. D is needed for absorbing Calcium and Phosphate ions from the wall of the intestine into the blood stream for bone mineralization and strengthening (as Calciumphospahte). Therefore , with a diet low in Vitamin D,  Ca, and phosphate,  and failure to absorbed the little available  from the intestine  to the bone tissue  for bone mineralization and hardening , the  bone will  not be hard, but soft.

The condition where most especially Vit,D metabolism , calcium and phosphate of the bone is disrupted,from insufficient supply to the bone, leading to softening of the bone tissues is  called  Osteomalacia. It is known as rickets in kids.

,  

Which of the following terms best describes the body's ability to perform physical activities on a regular basis without getting too tired and with energy left over to handle physical and mental emergencies?
a. body composition
b. muscular strength
c. aerobic capacity
d. physical fitness

Answers

B. Physical fitness
D. Physical fitness

__________ involves integration of assessment information and the formation of hypotheses about what drives someone to behave in problematic ways. It also involves identifying the thoughts and behaviors that should form treatment targets to result in the most robust improvements.

Answers

Answer:

Psychological assessment

Explanation:

Psychological assessment is a process of testing that uses a combination of techniques to help arrive at some hypotheses about a person and their behavior, personality and capabilities.

An acute stressor has a long duration and no clear end point. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F

Answers

Answer:

It Is FALSE that an acute stressor has a long duration and no clear end point.

Explanation:

Acute stress : this is a type of  stress that you would suffer from for a short period of time.for example like being hold up by a traffic jam, an argument with your friend e.t.c.

Acute stress is a short-term stress

John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine his level of body fat. This method of assessment is known as a ________.

Answers

Answer:

Hydrostatic weighing.

Explanation:

Hydrostatic weighing may be defined as the method used to find the density or the measurement of the mass per unit volume of the living organisms. This application is based on the Archimedes principle.

The level of the body fat can also be determined by the hydrostatic weighing. The fat content of the individual body can be determined by the formula , Fat % = [4.950 /Density - 4.500]×100.  The density needs to be calculated by

Density = Mass in air / Mass in air - Mass in water ÷ density of water - residual volume.

Thus, the answer is hydrostatic weighing.

Answer:

Hydrostatic weighing.

Explanation:

The main distinction between medical doctors and osteopaths is that osteopathic medicine places special emphasis on the body's _____ system, preventive medicine, and holistic care.

Answers

Answer:

musculoskeletal system

Explanation:

Osteopathic medicine -

It is the specific branch of the medicine , which focus on the interrelated unity of the system in the body i.e. , the musculoskeletal system , is referred to as the Osteopathic medicine .

The people working on the Osteopathic medicine are referred to as the osteopaths .

Hence , from the given information of the question ,

The correct term is musculoskeletal system .

Answer:

musculoskeletal system

Explanation:

Which of the following statements about the heritability of major depressive disorder MDD) is true?

a. Nearly 100% of people with genetic liability can be accounted for by the personality trait of dogmatism
b. Nearly 50% of people with genetic liability can be accounted for by the personality trait of aggressiveness.
c. The heritability is approximately 40% and the personality trait of neuroticism accounts for a substantial portion of this genetic liability
d. The heritability of MDD depends on whether the individual's mother or father had MDD
e. Less than 10% of people with genetic liability can be accounted for by the personality trait of perfectionism.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is Option "C"

Explanation:

According to twin studies, it has been estimated that the heritability of major depressive disorders (MDD) is around 37% to 40%. On average, people who share at least 50% of their genes with a family member that has MDD has more than 2 times at risk of having MDD themselves.

It has also been concluded from research that negative affectivity, or neuroticism, has a major link with the onset of MDD. In response to a stressful life, individuals with high levels of neuroticism are at a higher risk of developing MDD

Taylor was in a car accident when she was six months pregnant. Her doctors are worried that the accident may have caused problems with prenatal development because she is in the ________ period.

Answers

I’m pretty sure it’s the second period. I think that’s when most of the development happens

A 6-year-old child who has Down syndrome has been participating in OT to promote visual-motor integration. Standardized tests of visual attention indicate the child scored -1.0 standard deviations from the norm. Based on the hierarchy of visual-skills development, which client factor should be addressed NEXT?

Answers

Answer:

Based on the hierarchy of visual-skills development, The client factor should be addressed NEXT is Sensory Integration.

Explanation:

Sensory Integration: this is what is being used to describe the process by which the brain allows us take information we receive from our five sense organs, organize it and respond accurately to it.

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